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GRCP Questions and Answers

Question # 6

How can the Code of Conduct serve as a guidepost for organizations of all sizes and in all industries?

A.

It is a starting point for policies and procedures in large organizations or those in highly regulated industries, while in small organizations that are less regulated it is the only guidance needed.

B.

It is a legally mandated document that must be established and followed by all organizations.

C.

It sets out the principles, values, standards, or rules of behavior that guide the organization's decisions, procedures, and systems, serving as an effective guidepost.

D.

It is only applicable to large organizations in specific industries.

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Question # 7

Which of the following is most often responsible for balancing the competing needs of stakeholders and guiding, constraining, and conscribing the organization to achieve objectives reliably, address uncertainty, and act with integrity to meet these needs?

A.

A risk manager

B.

A general counsel

C.

A compliance unit

D.

A governing board

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Question # 8

How does budgeting for regular improvement activities contribute to capability maturation?

A.

It ensures that resources are available when opportunities to improve arise

B.

It increases the organization’s profitability and revenue

C.

It minimizes the risk of legal disputes and litigation

D.

It reduces the need for external audits and assessments

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Question # 9

What is the relationship between the internal context and the culture of an organization within the LEARN component?

A.

The internal context and culture determine the organization's financial performance.

B.

The internal context and culture describe the capabilities and resources used to meet stakeholder needs.

C.

The internal context and culture define the organization's risk appetite and tolerance levels.

D.

The internal context and culture outline the organization's compliance requirements.

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Question # 10

What considerations should be taken into account when protecting information associated with notifications?

A.

Allowing unrestricted access to notification and follow-up information by the notifier so that they can see the organization is responding appropriately

B.

Knowing that any legal or regulatory requirements related to data privacy do not apply to hotline reports

C.

Ensuring pathways comply with mandatory requirements in the locale where the notification originates and the organization operates

D.

Knowing that confidentiality and anonymity rights are the same thing

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Question # 11

What factors should be considered when selecting the appropriate sender of a message?

A.

The sender’s fluency in the language of the needed communication, cultural background, and comfort in communicating with the target audience.

B.

The sender’s preference for formal or informal communication and their ability to respond appropriately to feedback.

C.

The purpose of communication, desired results, reputation with audience members, and shared culture and background with the audience.

D.

The sender’s job title, office location, years of experience, and favorite communication channel.

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Question # 12

Which Critical Discipline of the Protector Skillset includes skills to constrain activities and setdirection?

A.

Audit & Assurance

B.

Governance & Oversight

C.

Risk & Decisions

D.

Compliance & Ethics

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Question # 13

What is the purpose of using the SMART model for results and indicators?

A.

To define results and indicators that are Stacked, Monitored, Achievable, Right, and Timely, especially for results and indicators that "run the organization."

B.

To assess the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats of the organization.

C.

To create a detailed budget and financial forecast for the organization.

D.

To define results and indicators that are Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, and Time-Bound, especially for results and indicators that "run the organization."

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Question # 14

How can an organization ensure that notifications are handled by the right organizational units?

A.

By establishing a single point for referral regardless of the topic or type

B.

By prioritizing, substantiating, validating, and routing notifications based on topic, type, and severity

C.

By disregarding any notifications that do not meet specific criteria or thresholds so the remainder can be more efficiently routed

D.

By requiring that all notifications be reviewed by the general counsel before any action is taken

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Question # 15

Why is it important to establish decision-making criteria in the alignment process?

A.

To calculate the return on investment (ROI) of alignment activities

B.

To ensure that the organization stays on track and achieves its objectives

C.

To comply with industry regulations and standards

D.

To evaluate the performance of individual employees and teams

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Question # 16

What is the significance of assigning a single owner to each objective?

A.

Assigning a single owner to each objective ensures clear accountability and authority to ensure successful achievement

B.

Assigning a single owner to each objective ensures that the owner receives recognition and rewards for achieving the objective

C.

Assigning a single owner to each objective allows the owner to delegate tasks to other employees to achieve the objective

D.

Assigning a single owner to each objective allows the owner to make unilateral decisions without consulting other stakeholders, which is necessary to keep plans for achieving the objective on track

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Question # 17

What is a potential limitation of using qualitative analysis techniques in the context of risk, reward, and compliance?

A.

Qualitative analysis techniques always lead to incorrect conclusions about risk, reward, and compliance.

B.

Qualitative analysis techniques are not applicable to the analysis of risk and reward.

C.

Qualitative analysis techniques rely on descriptive data and subjective judgments, which may result in less precise estimations compared to quantitative analysis.

D.

Qualitative analysis techniques are only useful for analyzing compliance-related risks.

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Question # 18

How do GRC Professionals apply the concept of ‘maturity’ in the GRC Capability Model?

A.

GRC Professionals apply maturity only to the highest level of the GRC Capability Model.

B.

GRC Professionals apply maturity at all levels of the GRC Capability Model to assess preparedness to perform practices and support continuous improvement.

C.

GRC Professionals use maturity to evaluate the performance of individual employees.

D.

GRC Professionals use maturity to determine the budget allocation for GRC programs.

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Question # 19

What is the term used to describe the positive, favorable effect of uncertainty on objectives?

A.

Obstacle

B.

Enhancement

C.

Profit

D.

Reward

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Question # 20

What does the initialism GRC stand for?

A.

Governing risk and compliance

B.

Governance, risk, and compliance

C.

Governance, risk, and controls

D.

Government, regulation, and controls

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Question # 21

What type of policy provides instructions on what actions should be avoided by the organization?

A.

Prescriptive Policy

B.

Procedural Policy

C.

Proscriptive Policy

D.

Reactive Policy

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Question # 22

In the IACM, what is the role of Compound/Accelerate Actions & Controls?

A.

To identify and address any potential conflicts of interest that may compound or accelerate enforcement actions against the company.

B.

To enhance the brand image and reputation of the organization.

C.

To accelerate and compound the impact of favorable events to increase benefits and promote the future occurrence.

D.

To accelerate and compound the benefits of reducing costs.

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Question # 23

What are some systems-based methods for conducting inquiries?

A.

Coordinating survey efforts throughout the organization

B.

Avoiding any connection between inquiry responses and performance appraisals

C.

Continuous control monitoring, log management, application performance monitoring, management dashboards

D.

Observations, meetings, focus groups, and individual conversations

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Question # 24

What is the difference between a mission and a vision?

A.

The mission states the organization’s purpose and direction, while the vision is an aspirational objective that states what the organization aspires to be.

B.

The mission is determined by external stakeholders, while the vision is determined by internal stakeholders.

C.

The mission is a short-term financial goal, while the vision is a long-term non-financial goal.

D.

The mission is what a for-profit organization should have, while the vision is for non-profit organizations.

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Question # 25

In the IACM, what is the role of Prevent/Deter Actions & Controls?

A.

To decrease the likelihood of unfavorable events

B.

To identify areas in the organization where compliance issues may arise

C.

To promote collaboration and teamwork among employees

D.

To ensure compliance with industry-specific regulations

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Question # 26

In the context of assurance activities, what does the term "assurance objectivity" refer to?

A.

To the degree to which an Assurance Provider can adhere to industry standards and best practices in performing audits.

B.

To the degree to which an Assurance Provider can provide accurate and reliable information to stakeholders on which they can form an opinion about the subject matter themselves.

C.

The degree to which an Assurance Provider can be impartial, disinterested, independent, and free to conduct necessary activities to form an opinion about the subject matter.

D.

To the degree to which an Assurance Provider can minimize costs and maximize efficiency in performing audits.

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Question # 27

In the context of GRC, what is the importance of aligning objectives throughout the organization?

A.

It ensures that superior-level objectives cascade to subordinate units and that subordinate units contribute to the most important objectives and priorities of the organization.

B.

It enables the governing authority to only focus on the highest-level objectives that are tied to financial outcomes.

C.

It frees the organization to focus solely on short-term financial performance.

D.

It eliminates the need for excessive communication and collaboration between different departments within the organization.

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Question # 28

What type of incentives are established through compensation, reward, and recognition programs?

A.

Social Incentives

B.

Economic Incentives

C.

Management Incentives

D.

Individualized Incentives

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Question # 29

What is the purpose of analyzing the internal context within an organization?

A.

To consider internal strengths and weaknesses, strategic plans, operating plans, organizational structures, policies, people, processes, technology, resources, information, and other internal factors that define the organization’s operations.

B.

To determine the organization’s financial performance and profitability with its current plans, structures, people, and other internal factors that define the organization’s operations.

C.

To evaluate the organization’s use of resources in relation to its established objectives.

D.

To assess how the organization operates given market conditions and competitive landscape.

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Question # 30

Which design option is characterized by implementing actions that govern and manage the opportunity, obstacle, or obligation according to its nature?

A.

Control

B.

Share

C.

Accept

D.

Avoid

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Question # 31

GRC Professionals, known as "Protectors," work to achieve a specific goal referred to as Principled Performance. Which of the following best describes Principled Performance®?

A.

To reliably achieve objectives, address uncertainty, and act with integrity – to produce and preserve value simultaneously.

B.

To maximize profits and minimize losses.

C.

To ensure compliance with all legal requirements.

D.

To eliminate all risks and uncertainties.

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Question # 32

What are some considerations to keep in mind when attempting to influence an organization’s culture?

A.

Culture change requires long-term commitment, consistent modeling in both words and deeds, and reinforcement by leaders and the workforce.

B.

Culture change is not necessary as long as the organization is meeting its financial targets.

C.

Culture change can be achieved quickly through the implementation of new policies and procedures if there is adequate training provided.

D.

Culture change is solely dependent on the decisions made by the executive leadership team and how they model desired behavior.

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Question # 33

What is the purpose of implementing incentives in an organization?

A.

To reduce the overall cost of employee compensation and benefits.

B.

To reduce the need for performance reviews and evaluations.

C.

To discourage employees from seeking employment opportunities elsewhere.

D.

To encourage the right proactive, detective, and responsive conduct in the workforce and extended enterprise.

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Question # 34

How can the Code of Conduct serve as a guidepost for organizations of all sizes and in all industries?

A.

It sets out the principles, values, standards, or rules of behavior that guide the organization’s decisions, procedures, and systems, serving as an effective guidepost

B.

It is only applicable to large organizations in specific industries

C.

It is a legally mandated document that must be established and followed by all organizations

D.

It is a starting point for policies and procedures in large organizations or those in highly regulated industries, while in small organizations that are less regulated it is the only guidance needed

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Question # 35

In the context of Total Performance, how is responsiveness measured in the assessment of an education program?

A.

The number of new courses added to the education program each year.

B.

The number of positive reviews received for the education program.

C.

The percentage of employees who pass the final assessment.

D.

Time taken to educate a department, time to achieve 100% coverage, and time to detect and correct errors.

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Question # 36

Who has ultimate accountability (plenary accountability) for the governance, management, and assurance of performance, risk, and compliance in the Lines of Accountability Model?

A.

The Fifth Line, or the Governing Authority (Board).

B.

The Second Line, or the individuals and teams that establish performance, risk, and compliance programs.

C.

The First Line, or the individuals and teams involved in operational activities.

D.

The Third Line, or the individuals and teams that provide assurance.

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Question # 37

Which aspect of culture includes how the organization objectively examines and judges the effectiveness, efficiency, responsiveness, and resilience of critical activities and outcomes?

A.

Management culture

B.

Performance culture

C.

Governance culture

D.

Assurance culture

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Question # 38

What is the term used to describe the outcome or potential outcome of an event?

A.

Consequence

B.

Impact

C.

Condition

D.

Effect

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Question # 39

What are some examples of legal and regulatory factors that may influence an organization's external context?

A.

Market research, customer feedback, and competitive analysis

B.

How the organization's legal department and outside legal counsel coordinate activities

C.

Laws, rules, regulations, litigation, and judicial or administrative opinions

D.

Enforcement actions and litigation against the company

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Question # 40

How does applying a consistent process for improvement benefit the organization?

A.

It benefits the internal audit department

B.

It reduces the need for employee training

C.

It helps prioritize and execute across the organization

D.

It is not necessary and has no benefits

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Question # 41

What is the difference between reasonable assurance and limited assurance?

A.

Reasonable assurance is provided by external auditors as part of a financial audit and indicates conformity to suitable criteria and freedom from material error, while limited assurance results from reviews, compilations, and other activities performed by competent personnel who are sufficiently objective about the subject matter.

B.

Reasonable assurance is provided by internal auditors as part of a risk assessment, while limited assurance results from external audits and regulatory examinations.

C.

Reasonable assurance is provided by the Board of Directors as part of governance activities, while limited assurance results from employee self-assessments.

D.

Reasonable assurance is provided by management as part of strategic planning, while limited assurance results from operational reviews and performance evaluations.

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Question # 42

What are leading indicators and lagging indicators?

A.

Leading indicators are types of input from leaders in each unit of the organization, while lagging indicators are views provided by departing employees during exit interviews.

B.

Leading indicators are financial metrics, while lagging indicators are non-financial metrics.

C.

Leading indicators are qualitative measures, while lagging indicators are quantitative measures.

D.

Leading indicators provide information about future events or conditions, while lagging indicators provide information about past events or conditions.

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Question # 43

What is the primary objective of Lean as a technique for improvement?

A.

To maximize profits and shareholder value

B.

To improve communication and collaboration

C.

To eliminate waste and increase efficiency

D.

To enhance customer satisfaction and loyalty

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Question # 44

What is the importance of gaining subordinate buy-in when setting the direction for an organization?

A.

To determine the organization’s expansion and growth plans without internal conflict

B.

To establish the organization’s brand identity and image without conflict

C.

To ensure that the organization has sufficient staff to take on defined tasks

D.

To help subordinate units understand and define ways to contribute to the organization’s success, reducing the risk of strategic misalignment and engagement decay

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Question # 45

Which of these would not trigger the reconsideration of internal factors within an organization?

A.

Fluctuations in the stock market and economic conditions.

B.

Ordinary seasonal fluctuations in purchases.

C.

The launch of a new product or service by a competitor.

D.

Changes in government regulations and industry standards.

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Question # 46

How do strategic goals differ from other objectives within an organization?

A.

Strategic goals are short-term objectives focused on the organization’s daily operations and activities

B.

Strategic goals are specific targets related to the organization’s sales and marketing efforts

C.

Strategic goals are long-term objectives typically set at higher levels of the organization and serve as guideposts for long-term strategic planning

D.

Strategic goals are quantitative measures of the organization’s financial performance and profitability

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Question # 47

What does it mean for an organization to "reliably achieve objectives" as part of Principled Performance?

A.

It means achieving short-term goals regardless of the impact on long-term success.

B.

It means having measurable outcomes.

C.

It means achieving mission, vision, and balanced objectives thoughtfully, consistently, dependably, and transparently.

D.

It means always achieving profitability targets and maximizing shareholder value.

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Question # 48

What should be done with information and findings obtained from all pathways in the context of inquiry?

A.

Discarding information that is not directly related to compliance

B.

Focusing solely on findings related to unfavorable events

C.

Sharing all findings with external stakeholders and the public

D.

Analysis of information and findings to identify, prioritize, and route findings to management and stakeholders

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Question # 49

In the LEARN component, what is the difference between external context and internal context?

A.

External context includes the organization's risk management policies, while internal contextincludes its compliance procedures

B.

External context represents the operating environment, while internal context represents capabilities and resources

C.

External context refers to the organization's financial performance, while internal context refers to its governance structure

D.

External context encompasses the organization's mission and vision, while internal context encompasses its values and culture

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Question # 50

What is the difference between a hazard and an obstacle in the context of uncertainty?

A.

A hazard is a measure of the negative impact on the organization, while an obstacle is a state of conditions that create a hazard.

B.

A hazard affects the likelihood of an event, while an obstacle is a hazard with significant impact on objectives.

C.

A hazard is a cause that has the potential to eventually result in harm, while an obstacle is an event that may have a negative effect on objectives.

D.

A hazard is a type of obstacle, while an obstacle is an overarching category of threat.

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Question # 51

Why is it important for an organization to balance the needs of diverse stakeholders?

A.

To prevent stakeholders from forming alliances against the organization.

B.

To ensure that all stakeholders receive equal consideration.

C.

To comply with industry regulations regarding stakeholder management.

D.

To address the requests, wants, or expectations of stakeholders and inform the mission, vision, and objectives of the organization.

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Question # 52

How does assurance help management and stakeholders gain confidence?

A.

It ensures policies and procedures meet regulatory standards

B.

It ensures financial statements are accurate and free from misstatements

C.

It helps identify and mitigate potential risks and threats to the organization

D.

It verifies that what stakeholders believe is happening, is actually happening

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Question # 53

What practices are involved in analyzing and understanding an organization’s ethical culture?

A.

Developing a strategic plan to achieve the organization’s long-term goals for improving ethical culture

B.

Conducting a survey of employees every few years on their views about the organization’s commitment to ethical conduct

C.

Implementing a performance appraisal system to evaluate employee performance

D.

Analyzing the climate and mindsets about how the workforce generally demonstrates integrity

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Question # 54

What are some key practices involved in managing policies within an organization?

A.

Having internal audit design standard policy templates to make assessment of their effectiveness easier

B.

Delegating policy management to each unit of the organization so there is a sense of accountability established

C.

Implementing, communicating, enforcing, and auditing policies and related procedures to ensure that they operate as intended and remain relevant

D.

Establishing policy management technology that has pre-populated templates so the organization’s policies meet industry standards

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Question # 55

What is the significance of assurance controls in the PERFORM component?

A.

To promote transparency and accountability in the organization's decision-making processes.

B.

To ensure that the organization's financial statements are accurate and reliable.

C.

To provide sufficient information to assurance providers when management and governance actions and controls are not enough.

D.

To establish a clear chain of command and reporting structure within the organization.

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Question # 56

Which design option is characterized by ceasing all activity or terminating sources that give rise to the opportunity, obstacle, or obligation?

A.

Share

B.

Accept

C.

Control

D.

Avoid

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Question # 57

What are some examples of economic incentives that can be used to encourage favorable conduct?

A.

Monetary compensation, bonuses, profit-sharing, and gain-sharing.

B.

Employee training, mentorship programs, and skills development.

C.

Flexible work hours, remote work options, and casual dress codes.

D.

Team-building activities, company retreats, and social events.

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Question # 58

What does agility in the context of the PERFORM component refer to?

A.

The proficiency in building and maintaining relationships with partners and suppliers who must implement Perform actions and controls

B.

The ability to quickly change direction in Perform actions and controls when things change

C.

The capacity to innovate and develop new ways to implement Perform actions and controls

D.

The capability to manage and resolve conflicts and disputes regarding Perform actions and controls

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Question # 59

What type of incentives include appreciation, status, and professional development?

A.

Economic Incentives

B.

Contractual Incentives

C.

Personal Incentives

D.

Non-Economic Incentives

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Question # 60

What is the purpose of mapping objectives to one another?

A.

Mapping objectives is a way to reduce the need for communication and collaboration between different departments within the organization

B.

Mapping objectives shows how objectives impact one another and helps allocate resources to achieve the most important objectives and priorities

C.

Mapping objectives is only relevant for financial objectives and has no impact on non-financial objectives

D.

Mapping objectives allows the organization to ignore subordinate-level objectives and focus only on superior-level objectives

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Question # 61

What are some examples of informal mechanisms that can capture notifications within an organization?

A.

An open-door policy and direct communication with management.

B.

Public announcements and press releases.

C.

Standard reporting forms and documentation.

D.

Audits and third-party assessments.

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Question # 62

What is the primary purpose of the ALIGN component in the GRC Capability Model?

A.

To coordinate the monitoring and evaluation of the organization's governance, risk, and compliance activities.

B.

To define the direction and objectives of an organization and design an integrated plan to address opportunities, obstacles, and obligations.

C.

To establish communication channels and provide education to stakeholders about how the organization aligns its business operations to their needs.

D.

To review and improve the organization’s policies and controls and ensure they are aligned to the operations of the business.

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Question # 63

How is the level of assurance determined in relation to objectivity and competence?

A.

The level of assurance is based on the financial performance of the organization being evaluated.

B.

The level of assurance is a function of the assurance objectivity and assurance competence of the assurance provider.

C.

The level of assurance is determined by the number of years of experience of the assurance provider.

D.

The level of assurance is established by the governing authority based on regulatory requirements.

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