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GRCP Questions and Answers

Question # 6

GRC Professionals, known as "Protectors," work to achieve a specific goal referred to as Principled Performance. Which of the following best describes Principled Performance®?

A.

To reliably achieve objectives, address uncertainty, and act with integrity – to produce and preserve value simultaneously.

B.

To maximize profits and minimize losses.

C.

To ensure compliance with all legal requirements.

D.

To eliminate all risks and uncertainties.

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Question # 7

In the IACM, what is the role of Compound/Accelerate Actions & Controls?

A.

To identify and address any potential conflicts of interest that may compound or accelerate enforcement actions against the company.

B.

To enhance the brand image and reputation of the organization.

C.

To accelerate and compound the impact of favorable events to increase benefits and promote the future occurrence.

D.

To accelerate and compound the benefits of reducing costs.

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Question # 8

How does the GRC Capability Model define the term "enterprise"?

A.

The enterprise is the most superior unit that encompasses the entirety of the organization.

B.

The enterprise refers to the organization's sales and distribution channels.

C.

The enterprise refers to the organization's information technology infrastructure and systems.

D.

The enterprise refers to a starship that boldly goes where no man has gone before.

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Question # 9

Why is monitoring important in the context of the REVIEW component?

A.

Because it generates financial reports for stakeholders.

B.

Because it contributes to employee performance evaluations.

C.

Because it is a required task for external regulatory compliance.

D.

Because it helps management and the governing authority understand progress toward objectives and whether opportunities, obstacles, and obligations are addressed.

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Question # 10

What is the difference between an organization that is being "Good" and being a "Principled Performer"?

A.

An organization must measure up to the Principled Performance definition to be a "Principled Performer," regardless of whether its objectives are subjectively perceived or preferred as "Good" or "Bad."

B.

A "Principled Performer" always pursues objectives that are considered "Good" by society.

C.

There is no difference: "Good" and a "Principled Performer" are synonymous.

D.

A "Principled Performer" is an organization that donates a significant portion of its profits to charity.

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Question # 11

What is the significance of a vision statement in inspiring and motivating employees, stakeholders, and customers?

A.

It specifies the organization's views on ethical issues facing it.

B.

It describes what the organization aspires to be and why it matters, serving as a guidepost for long-term strategic planning and inspiring and motivating employees, stakeholders, and customers.

C.

It details the organization's sales targets and revenue projections to motivate employees to work hard and meet those goals.

D.

It outlines the organization's succession planning and leadership development.

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Question # 12

Which statement is FALSE?

A.

The organization should have an education plan for each target population indicating what they should know about the GRC capability and their responsibilities for GRC activities.

B.

Regardless of role, everyone in the organization should receive the same curriculum and the same education activities to ensure consistent understanding.

C.

The organization should conduct a needs assessment to determine the training that will address high-risk situations and develop a training plan for each job or job family.

D.

The organization should identify legally mandated education, including who must be educated, the content required, the time required, and methods that may be used for each required course.

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Question # 13

What is the essence or the central meaning of GRC?

A.

A connected and integrated approach that provides a pathway to Principled Performance by overcoming VUCA and disconnection

B.

A system for monitoring and evaluating the performance of employees and teams

C.

A set of guidelines and regulations for corporate governance and ethical conduct

D.

A framework for managing financial risks and ensuring fiscal responsibility

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Question # 14

What criteria should objectives meet to be considered effective?

A.

Objectives should be based only on financial metrics for each unit or department

B.

Objectives should meet the SMART criteria (Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Timebound)

C.

Objectives should only have one timescale, e.g., quarterly, annually, 5 years

D.

Objectives should be sought by a majority of the stakeholder categories for the organization

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Question # 15

What is the goal of implementing communication practices in an organization?

A.

To minimize the number of communication channels used within the organization and increase efficiency

B.

To ensure that all communication is formal and documented as required by law and regulation

C.

To eliminate informal communications that may provide incorrect information

D.

To address opportunities, obstacles, and obligations by interacting with the right audiences at the right time with the right information and intelligence

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Question # 16

What is the importance of mapping objectives to one another within an organization?

A.

Mapping objectives not only at the enterprise level but also across all units shows how they impact one another and how resources may be best allocated

B.

Mapping objectives not only at the enterprise level but also across all units is important for determining the compensation and bonuses of employees based on their contributions to achieving objectives

C.

Mapping objectives not only at the enterprise level but also across all units is important for creating a visual representation of the organization’s hierarchy and reporting structure

D.

Mapping objectives not only at the enterprise level but also across all units is important for identifying redundant objectives and eliminating them from the organization’s strategic plan

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Question # 17

Which trait of the Protector Mindset involves acting deliberately in advance to reduce the risk of being caught off guard?

A.

Proactive

B.

Versatile

C.

Collaborative

D.

Assertive

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Question # 18

In the context of GRC, which is the best description of the role of assurance in an organization?

A.

Allocating financial resources and evaluating their use to manage the organization’s budget better.

B.

Providing the governing body with opinions on how well its objectives are being met based on expertise and experience.

C.

Designing and monitoring the organization’s information technology systems to be accurate and reliable so management can be assured of meeting established objectives.

D.

Objectively and competently evaluating subject matter to provide justified conclusions and confidence.

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Question # 19

What is the primary objective of Lean as a technique for improvement?

A.

To maximize profits and shareholder value

B.

To improve communication and collaboration

C.

To eliminate waste and increase efficiency

D.

To enhance customer satisfaction and loyalty

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Question # 20

What role do mission, vision, and values play in the ALIGN component?

A.

They specify the processes as well as the technology and tools used in the alignment process.

B.

They determine the allocation of financial resources within the organization.

C.

They outline the legal and regulatory requirements that the organization must satisfy and define how they relate to the business objectives.

D.

They provide clear direction and decision-making criteria and should be well-defined and consistently communicated throughout the organization.

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Question # 21

What type of policy provides instructions on what actions should be avoided by the organization?

A.

Prescriptive Policy

B.

Procedural Policy

C.

Proscriptive Policy

D.

Reactive Policy

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Question # 22

Which category of actions and controls in the IACM includes human factors such as structure, accountability, education, and enablement?

A.

Technology

B.

Policy

C.

Information

D.

People

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Question # 23

Which "most important stakeholder" judges whether an organization is producing, protecting, or destroying value?

A.

Customer

B.

Risk Manager

C.

Board

D.

Ethics Department

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Question # 24

How do values influence the way an organization operates?

A.

They establish the organization’s code of conduct

B.

They set voluntary boundaries for how the organization operates and often explain design decisions about the operating model

C.

They dictate the organization’s pricing strategy and revenue generation

D.

They determine the organization's market share and competitive positioning as part of assessing its financial value to shareholders

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Question # 25

What are some considerations that should be taken into account when examining an organization’s internal context?

A.

Regulatory compliance, legal disputes, and contractual obligations on a unit-by-unit or division-by-division basis

B.

How any changes to the internal context might affect supplier relationships, distribution channels, and pricing strategies

C.

Mission and vision, values, value propositions and operating models, organizational charts and operating model mapping, key department scope and purpose, and potential perverse incentives

D.

Market share, employee and customer satisfaction, and brand reputation

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Question # 26

What are the two aspects of value that Protectors are skilled at balancing within an organization?

A.

Value creation and value protection

B.

Value production and value preservation

C.

Value measurement and value analysis

D.

Value assessment and value reporting

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Question # 27

What is the role of continuous control monitoring in the context of notifications within an organization?

A.

It is used to monitor employees' personal communications.

B.

It is a tool that provides automated alerts for notifications within an organization.

C.

It is a method primarily for tracking the organization's speed of response to notifications.

D.

It is a technique for listening to hotline employees to ensure they are providing the right information.

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Question # 28

Why is independence considered important in the context of assurance activities?

A.

It allows assurance providers to avoid legal liability and regulatory penalties

B.

It is a tool to achieve objectivity, enhancing the impartiality and credibility of assurance activities

C.

It allows assurance providers to negotiate better contracts and agreements with stakeholders

D.

It enables assurance providers to access confidential information and proprietary data

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Question # 29

What is the term used to describe the positive, favorable effect of uncertainty on objectives?

A.

Obstacle

B.

Enhancement

C.

Profit

D.

Reward

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Question # 30

Which Critical Discipline of the Protector Skillset includes skills to enhance stakeholder confidence and perform assessments?

A.

Audit & Assurance

B.

Security & Continuity

C.

Governance & Oversight

D.

Strategy & Performance

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Question # 31

In the context of the GRC Capability Model, what is culture defined as?

A.

A formal structure that is established by the leadership of an organization to ensure compliance with requirements, whether they are mandatory or voluntary obligations of the organization.

B.

An emergent property of a group of people caused by the interaction of individual beliefs, values, mindsets, and behaviors, and demonstrated by observable norms and articulated opinions.

C.

A set of written rules and guidelines that dictate the behavior of individuals within an organization.

D.

A collection of artifacts, symbols, and rituals that represent the history of an organization.

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Question # 32

What considerations should be taken into account when protecting information associated with notifications?

A.

Allowing unrestricted access to notification and follow-up information by the notifier so that they can see the organization is responding appropriately

B.

Knowing that any legal or regulatory requirements related to data privacy do not apply to hotline reports

C.

Ensuring pathways comply with mandatory requirements in the locale where the notification originates and the organization operates

D.

Knowing that confidentiality and anonymity rights are the same thing

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Question # 33

What is the objective of improving actions and controls to address root causes and weaknesses associated with unfavorable events?

A.

To escalate incidents for investigation and identify them as in-house or external.

B.

To provide incentives to employees for favorable conduct.

C.

To determine if, when, how, and what to disclose regarding unfavorable events.

D.

To ensure that future events of similar nature are less likely to occur and are less harmful.

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Question # 34

What are some examples of non-economic incentives that can be used to encourage favorable conduct?

A.

Appreciation, status, professional development

B.

Stock options, salary increases, bonuses, and profit-sharing

C.

Gift baskets, extra vacation time, and employee competitions

D.

Health insurance, retirement plans, paid time off, and sick leave

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Question # 35

What is the primary goal of defining an education plan?

A.

To evaluate the current skill level of the workforce.

B.

To develop a plan that is tailored to the specific needs of each audience.

C.

To create a helpline for anonymous reporting and asking questions.

D.

To implement Bloom’s Taxonomy in the education program.

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Question # 36

Why is it necessary to provide timely disclosures about the resolution of issues to relevant stakeholders?

A.

To escalate incidents for investigation and identify them as in-house or external.

B.

To ensure protection of anonymity and non-retaliation for reporters.

C.

To compound and accelerate the impact of favorable events.

D.

To meet legal requirements and provide confidence to stakeholders about the process.

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Question # 37

What is the term used to describe a cause that has the potential to eventually result in benefit?

A.

Venture

B.

Objective

C.

Prospect

D.

Target outcome

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Question # 38

Why is it essential to make the mission, vision, and values explicit within an organization?

A.

It is important for gaining and maintaining buy-in from all stakeholders.

B.

It is necessary to comply with industry regulations and standards.

C.

It is crucial for developing the organization’s training and development programs aligned with the mission, vision, and values.

D.

It helps the workforce understand and make decisions at all levels, preventing the organization from operating on ad hoc beliefs and interests.

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Question # 39

What is the role of indicators in measuring progress toward objectives?

A.

Indicators are used to determine if the objectives must be changed in response to changes in the external or internal context.

B.

Indicators measure quantitative or qualitative progress toward an objective.

C.

Indicators are used to evaluate the appropriateness of the organization’s selection of objectives.

D.

Indicators are used to calculate the return on investment for various projects and initiatives.

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Question # 40

What are some considerations to keep in mind when attempting to influence an organization’s culture?

A.

Culture change requires long-term commitment, consistent modeling in both words and deeds, and reinforcement by leaders and the workforce.

B.

Culture change is not necessary as long as the organization is meeting its financial targets.

C.

Culture change can be achieved quickly through the implementation of new policies and procedures if there is adequate training provided.

D.

Culture change is solely dependent on the decisions made by the executive leadership team and how they model desired behavior.

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Question # 41

What is the purpose of analyzing the internal context within an organization?

A.

To consider internal strengths and weaknesses, strategic plans, operating plans, organizational structures, policies, people, processes, technology, resources, information, and other internal factors that define the organization’s operations.

B.

To determine the organization’s financial performance and profitability with its current plans, structures, people, and other internal factors that define the organization’s operations.

C.

To evaluate the organization’s use of resources in relation to its established objectives.

D.

To assess how the organization operates given market conditions and competitive landscape.

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Question # 42

What is the purpose of using the SMART model for results and indicators?

A.

To define results and indicators that are Stacked, Monitored, Achievable, Right, and Timely, especially for results and indicators that "run the organization."

B.

To assess the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats of the organization.

C.

To create a detailed budget and financial forecast for the organization.

D.

To define results and indicators that are Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, and Time-Bound, especially for results and indicators that "run the organization."

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Question # 43

How do detective actions and controls contribute to managing performance?

A.

They provide investigative capabilities in every part of the organization.

B.

They detect and correct unfavorable events, which will lead to an increase in favorable events.

C.

They indicate progress toward objectives by detecting events that help or hinder performance.

D.

They focus on promoting favorable events, which will lead to the reduction of unfavorable events.

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Question # 44

What is the difference between a mission and a vision?

A.

The mission states the organization’s purpose and direction, while the vision is an aspirational objective that states what the organization aspires to be.

B.

The mission is determined by external stakeholders, while the vision is determined by internal stakeholders.

C.

The mission is a short-term financial goal, while the vision is a long-term non-financial goal.

D.

The mission is what a for-profit organization should have, while the vision is for non-profit organizations.

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Question # 45

Which Critical Discipline of the Protector Skillset includes skills to address obligations and shape an ethical culture?

A.

Compliance & Ethics

B.

Security & Continuity

C.

Governance & Oversight

D.

Audit & Assurance

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Question # 46

What is the duality of compliance, and how does it relate to risk?

A.

The duality of compliance refers to the distinction between domestic and international regulations that an organization must follow.

B.

The duality of compliance refers to the trade-off between investing in compliance measures and allocating resources to other business areas.

C.

The duality of compliance involves addressing both compliance with obligations and compliance-related risks. Compliance involves meeting mandatory and voluntary obligations, while compliance-related risks involve addressing the risk of negative outcomes associated with non-compliance.

D.

The duality of compliance refers to the balance between financial gains and ethical considerations in business decisions.

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