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GRCP Questions and Answers

Question # 6

What is the importance of mapping objectives to one another within an organization?

A.

Mapping objectives not only at the enterprise level but also across all units shows how they impact one another and how resources may be best allocated

B.

Mapping objectives not only at the enterprise level but also across all units is important for determining the compensation and bonuses of employees based on their contributions to achieving objectives

C.

Mapping objectives not only at the enterprise level but also across all units is important for creating a visual representation of the organization’s hierarchy and reporting structure

D.

Mapping objectives not only at the enterprise level but also across all units is important for identifying redundant objectives and eliminating them from the organization’s strategic plan

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Question # 7

In the context of Total Performance, what considerations are made for resilience in the assessment of an education program?

A.

The number of employees who have completed advanced training.

B.

The frequency of updates to the education program's curriculum.

C.

The availability of online and offline training materials.

D.

Contingency plans for system failure, slack in timelines, and availability of backup staff.

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Question # 8

What are the two key factors that determine the level of assurance provided by an assurance provider?

A.

Assurance Objectivity and Assurance Competence

B.

Assurance Transparency and Assurance Accountability

C.

Assurance Consistency and Assurance Reliability

D.

Assurance Efficiency and Assurance Effectiveness

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Question # 9

What type of policy provides instructions on what actions should be avoided by the organization?

A.

Prescriptive Policy

B.

Procedural Policy

C.

Proscriptive Policy

D.

Reactive Policy

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Question # 10

What is the role of the mission statement in guiding decision-making and priority-setting within an organization?

A.

It outlines the organization’s budget and financial goals which must be considered in every type of decision

B.

It describes the organization’s product development plans that must be considered when making decisions and setting priorities

C.

It serves as a clear and consistent statement of the organization’s overall purpose and direction, guiding decision-making and priority-setting

D.

It defines the roles and responsibilities of each department

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Question # 11

In the IACM, what is the role of Assurance Actions & Controls?

A.

To assist assurance personnel in providing assurance services

B.

To assess new products and services for the market

C.

To analyze financial statements and prepare budgets

D.

To create a positive organizational culture and work environment

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Question # 12

What is the primary responsibility of the Fourth Line in the Lines of Accountability Model?

A.

The Fourth Line, which is the Procurement Department, is responsible for managing vendor relationships and procurement processes.

B.

The Fourth Line, which is the HR department, is responsible for providing training and development opportunities to employees.

C.

The Fourth Line, which is the Compliance Department, is responsible for establishing actions and controls to address regulatory and policy requirements.

D.

The Fourth Line, which is the Executive Team, is accountable and responsible for organization-wide performance, risk, and compliance.

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Question # 13

What is the primary focus of management actions and controls in the IACM?

A.

To oversee employees and meet target objectives for the unit being managed.

B.

To directly address opportunities, obstacles, and obligations.

C.

To minimize costs and maximize profits.

D.

To ensure strict adherence to external regulations and internal policies.

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Question # 14

What are some examples of technology factors that may influence an organization's external context?

A.

Market segmentation, pricing strategies, and promotional activities

B.

Research and Design activity, innovations in materials, mechanical efficiency, and the rate of technological change

C.

How the organization uses technology for employee recruitment, onboarding processes, and performance appraisals

D.

How the organization uses financial forecasting, budgeting, and cost control

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Question # 15

Which "most important stakeholder" judges whether an organization is producing, protecting, or destroying value?

A.

Customer

B.

Risk Manager

C.

Board

D.

Ethics Department

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Question # 16

What does "Effectiveness" refer to when assessing Total Performance in the GRC Capability Model?

A.

The ability of a program to ensure compliance with laws and regulations and avoid issues or incidents of noncompliance

B.

The speed at which a program is implemented and executed with a good design that can be implemented in every department

C.

The soundness and logical design of a program, its alignment with best practices, coverage of topical areas, and impact on intended business objectives

D.

The cost savings achieved by implementing a GRC program

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Question # 17

What type of incentives include appreciation, status, and professional development?

A.

Economic Incentives

B.

Contractual Incentives

C.

Personal Incentives

D.

Non-Economic Incentives

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Question # 18

How is the efficiency of the LEARN component measured in terms of the use of capital?

A.

By measuring changes in the organization's market share and competitive position.

B.

By evaluating the return on investment from undertaking LEARN activities.

C.

By assessing the efficiency of using financial, physical, human, and information capital to learn.

D.

By analyzing the organization's budget allocation and resource utilization.

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Question # 19

Why is it important to design specific inquiry routines to detect unfavorable events?

A.

To prioritize the discovery of favorable events.

B.

To avoid the need for technology-based inquiry methods.

C.

To detect them as soon as possible.

D.

To prevent the need for observations and conversations.

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Question # 20

Why is independence considered important in the context of assurance activities?

A.

It allows assurance providers to avoid legal liability and regulatory penalties

B.

It is a tool to achieve objectivity, enhancing the impartiality and credibility of assurance activities

C.

It allows assurance providers to negotiate better contracts and agreements with stakeholders

D.

It enables assurance providers to access confidential information and proprietary data

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Question # 21

What is the role of key performance indicators (KPIs)?

A.

KPIs are subjective measures that are not based on any specific metrics or data

B.

KPIs are indicators that help govern, manage, and provide assurance about performance related to an objective

C.

KPIs are only relevant for external reporting and have no impact on internal decision-making

D.

KPIs are used to determine employee compensation and bonuses

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Question # 22

What are some examples of non-economic incentives that can be used to encourage favorable conduct?

A.

Appreciation, status, professional development

B.

Stock options, salary increases, bonuses, and profit-sharing

C.

Gift baskets, extra vacation time, and employee competitions

D.

Health insurance, retirement plans, paid time off, and sick leave

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Question # 23

What is the term used to describe a measure that estimates the likelihood and impact of an event?

A.

Consequence

B.

Effect

C.

Condition

D.

Cause

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Question # 24

What practices are involved in analyzing and understanding an organization’s ethical culture?

A.

Developing a strategic plan to achieve the organization’s long-term goals for improving ethical culture

B.

Conducting a survey of employees every few years on their views about the organization’s commitment to ethical conduct

C.

Implementing a performance appraisal system to evaluate employee performance

D.

Analyzing the climate and mindsets about how the workforce generally demonstrates integrity

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Question # 25

What are some examples of economic incentives that can be used to encourage favorable conduct?

A.

Monetary compensation, bonuses, profit-sharing, and gain-sharing.

B.

Employee training, mentorship programs, and skills development.

C.

Flexible work hours, remote work options, and casual dress codes.

D.

Team-building activities, company retreats, and social events.

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Question # 26

How are opportunities, obstacles, and obligations prioritized for further analysis?

A.

Based on identification criteria and the priority of associated objectives

B.

Based on the business units they relate to and how important those units are to the achievement of objectives

C.

Based on the items identified as top priorities at the enterprise level taking higher priority than any unit-based items

D.

Based on the preferences of the executive management team

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Question # 27

How does budgeting for regular improvement activities contribute to capability maturation?

A.

It ensures that resources are available when opportunities to improve arise

B.

It increases the organization’s profitability and revenue

C.

It minimizes the risk of legal disputes and litigation

D.

It reduces the need for external audits and assessments

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Question # 28

What is the importance of gaining subordinate buy-in when setting the direction for an organization?

A.

To determine the organization’s expansion and growth plans without internal conflict

B.

To establish the organization’s brand identity and image without conflict

C.

To ensure that the organization has sufficient staff to take on defined tasks

D.

To help subordinate units understand and define ways to contribute to the organization’s success, reducing the risk of strategic misalignment and engagement decay

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Question # 29

Which of the following reflects what the learner will be able to do after a learning activity?

A.

Learning Assessment

B.

Learning Objective

C.

Learning Content

D.

Learning Outcome

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Question # 30

What is the purpose of reviewing information from monitoring and assurance?

A.

To determine the effectiveness of strategies

B.

To identify opportunities for improvement

C.

To assess the financial stability of the organization

D.

To evaluate employee performance

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Question # 31

What is the design option that involves ceasing all activity or terminating sources that give rise to the opportunity, obstacle, or obligation?

A.

Accept

B.

Share

C.

Avoid

D.

Control

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Question # 32

What is the primary purpose of interacting with stakeholders in an organization?

A.

To understand expectations, requirements, and perspectives that impact the organization

B.

To gather feedback for marketing campaigns

C.

To negotiate contracts and agreements with stakeholders

D.

To ensure stakeholders invest in the organization

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Question # 33

What is the difference between an organization that is being "Good" and being a "Principled Performer"?

A.

An organization must measure up to the Principled Performance definition to be a "Principled Performer," regardless of whether its objectives are subjectively perceived or preferred as "Good" or "Bad."

B.

A "Principled Performer" always pursues objectives that are considered "Good" by society.

C.

There is no difference: "Good" and a "Principled Performer" are synonymous.

D.

A "Principled Performer" is an organization that donates a significant portion of its profits to charity.

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Question # 34

Which of the following is most often responsible for balancing the competing needs of stakeholders and guiding, constraining, and conscribing the organization to achieve objectives reliably, address uncertainty, and act with integrity to meet these needs?

A.

A risk manager

B.

A general counsel

C.

A compliance unit

D.

A governing board

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Question # 35

In the context of assurance activities, what is meant by the term "suitable criteria"?

A.

Benchmarks used to evaluate subject matter that yield consistent and meaningful results

B.

Legal and regulatory requirements that an organization must comply with

C.

Ethical standards and codes of conduct established by an organization

D.

Financial targets and performance metrics set by an organization

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Question # 36

What is the role of sensemaking in understanding the internal context?

A.

Sensemaking involves analyzing the organization’s supply chain to identify potential bottlenecks and make any necessary changes in how it is managed.

B.

Sensemaking involves evaluating the organization’s sense of all aspects of its culture so that improvements can be made.

C.

Sensemaking involves conducting financial audits to make sense of the financial condition of the organization and ensure compliance with accounting standards.

D.

Sensemaking involves continually watching for and making sense of changes in the internal context that have a direct, indirect, or cumulative effect on the organization.

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Question # 37

What is the purpose of conducting after-action reviews?

A.

To determine if, when, how, and what to disclose regarding unfavorable events

B.

To provide timely incentives to employees for favorable conduct

C.

To uncover root causes of favorable and unfavorable events and improve proactive, detective, and responsive actions and controls

D.

To establish a tiered approach for responding to unfavorable events

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Question # 38

What is the purpose of defining design criteria?

A.

To identify the key stakeholders involved in the design process

B.

To guide, constrain, and conscribe how actions and controls are prioritized to achieve acceptable levels of risk, reward, and compliance

C.

To establish a timeline for the implementation of the design

D.

To determine the budget allocated for the design project

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Question # 39

What is the relationship between monitoring and assurance activities in identifying opportunities for improvement?

A.

Monitoring activities focus on improvement, while assurance activities focus on risk assessment

B.

Monitoring and assurance activities have no relationship and operate independently

C.

Monitoring activities are related to financial improvement, while assurance activities are related to operational improvement

D.

Both monitoring and assurance activities identify opportunities to improve total performance

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Question # 40

Which Critical Discipline of the Protector Skillset includes skills to set objectives and align strategies?

A.

Compliance & Ethics

B.

Risk & Decisions

C.

Security & Continuity

D.

Strategy & Performance

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Question # 41

In the context of GRC, which is the best description of the role of assurance in an organization?

A.

Allocating financial resources and evaluating their use to manage the organization’s budget better.

B.

Providing the governing body with opinions on how well its objectives are being met based on expertise and experience.

C.

Designing and monitoring the organization’s information technology systems to be accurate and reliable so management can be assured of meeting established objectives.

D.

Objectively and competently evaluating subject matter to provide justified conclusions and confidence.

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Question # 42

In which organizational departments do Protectors typically advise and work?

A.

Supply chain, logistics, and procurement

B.

Research and development, engineering, and production

C.

Board, strategy, risk, compliance, ethics, human resources, legal, security, quality, internal control, and audit

D.

Sales, marketing, finance, and customer service

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Question # 43

What are key risk indicators (KRIs) associated with?

A.

The rate of return on investment and capital allocation

B.

The quality of products and services offered to customers

C.

The level of innovation and technological advancement

D.

The negative, unfavorable effect of uncertainty on objectives

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Question # 44

What is the role of compliance management systems and key compliance indicators (KCIs) in an organization?

A.

To deliver compliance training to employees

B.

To measure the degree to which obligations and requirements are addressed

C.

To ensure adherence to ethical standards and codes of conduct

D.

To monitor and evaluate the effectiveness of internal controls and procedures

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Question # 45

What is the term used to describe an event that may have a negative effect on objectives?

A.

Risk

B.

Hazard

C.

Obstacle (Threat)

D.

Challenge

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Question # 46

What is the term used to describe the outcome or potential outcome of an event?

A.

Consequence

B.

Impact

C.

Condition

D.

Effect

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Question # 47

What is the purpose of using the SMART model for results and indicators?

A.

To define results and indicators that are Stacked, Monitored, Achievable, Right, and Timely, especially for results and indicators that "run the organization."

B.

To assess the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats of the organization.

C.

To create a detailed budget and financial forecast for the organization.

D.

To define results and indicators that are Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, and Time-Bound, especially for results and indicators that "run the organization."

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Question # 48

How can "assurance competence" contribute to the level of assurance provided?

A.

It is solely based on the assurance provider's credentials and ensures the highest level of assurance

B.

It is determined by the number of years the assurance provider has been in the industry and ensures high levels of assurance

C.

A greater degree of it allows the assurance provider to use sophisticated, professional, and structured techniques to evaluate the subject matter, resulting in a higher level of assurance

D.

It is only relevant for external audits and does not apply to internal assurance activities and level of assurance

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Question # 49

What is the essence or the central meaning of GRC?

A.

A connected and integrated approach that provides a pathway to Principled Performance by overcoming VUCA and disconnection

B.

A system for monitoring and evaluating the performance of employees and teams

C.

A set of guidelines and regulations for corporate governance and ethical conduct

D.

A framework for managing financial risks and ensuring fiscal responsibility

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Question # 50

How does applying a consistent process for improvement benefit the organization?

A.

It benefits the internal audit department

B.

It reduces the need for employee training

C.

It helps prioritize and execute across the organization

D.

It is not necessary and has no benefits

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Question # 51

How does Benchmarking contribute to the improvement of a capability?

A.

By identifying potential legal and regulatory issues.

B.

By comparing the capability's performance to industry standards or best practices.

C.

By assessing the impact of organizational culture.

D.

By evaluating the effectiveness of risk management campaigns.

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Question # 52

What is the role of an assurance provider in the assurance process?

A.

They conduct activities to evaluate claims and statements about subject matter to enhance confidence.

B.

They oversee the implementation of the organization's compliance program and policies.

C.

They conduct financial audits and issue audit reports.

D.

They develop the organization’s risk management strategy and framework.

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Question # 53

What does it mean for an organization to "sense" its external context?

A.

To make sense of the changes that are tracked in the external context to determine impact on the organization

B.

To evaluate the effectiveness of the organization’s monitoring of the external environment

C.

To continually watch for and make sense of changes in the external context that may have a direct, indirect, or cumulative effect on the organization and to notify appropriate personnel and systems

D.

To use qualitative methods of monitoring the organization’s external context based on experience and intuition

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Question # 54

What is the purpose of implementing policies within an organization?

A.

To set clear expectations of conduct for key internal stakeholders and the extended enterprise.

B.

To meet regulatory requirements and establish compliance.

C.

To reduce the need for defined procedures and guidelines within the organization.

D.

To have individual regulation-specific policies instead of a generic Code of Conduct.

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Question # 55

What is the role of risk management systems and key risk indicators (KRIs) in an organization?

A.

To assess the level of compliance with legal and regulatory requirements

B.

To evaluate the potential impact of market fluctuations and economic conditions

C.

To address obstacles and measure the negative, unfavorable effect of uncertainty on objectives

D.

To identify and mitigate potential threats to the organization's security and reputation

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Question # 56

How are Key Performance Indicators (KPIs), Key Risk Indicators (KRIs), and Key Compliance Indicators (KCIs) used?

A.

KPIs help govern, manage, and provide assurance about performance related to an objective; KRIs help govern, manage, and provide assurance about risk related to an objective; KCIs help govern, manage, and provide assurance about compliance related to an objective

B.

KPIs are financial metrics, KRIs are operational metrics, and KCIs are customer-related metrics, all of which are used to determine executive bonuses

C.

KPIs are long-term goals, KRIs are short-term goals, and KCIs are intermediate goals, all of which are used to determine what decision-making criteria is required

D.

KPIs are used to measure the efficiency of business processes; KRIs are used to assess the risk assessment processes; and KCIs are used to evaluate the impact of changes, regulations and other obligations

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Question # 57

What does the initialism GRC stand for?

A.

Governing risk and compliance

B.

Governance, risk, and compliance

C.

Governance, risk, and controls

D.

Government, regulation, and controls

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Question # 58

How can organizations encourage the occurrence of positive events while preventing negative ones?

A.

Through implementing proactive actions and controls

B.

Through employee training and follow-up

C.

Through using financial actions and controls

D.

Through relying on responsive actions and controls

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Question # 59

In the context of Principled Performance, what is the definition of integrity?

A.

Integrity is the absence of any legal disputes or conflicts within an organization

B.

Integrity is the ability to achieve financial success as promised to shareholders

C.

Integrity is the process of complying with all government regulations

D.

Integrity is the state of being whole and complete by fulfilling obligations, honoring promises, and cleaning up the mess if a promise was broken

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Question # 60

Which Critical Discipline of the Protector Skillset includes skills to enhance stakeholder confidence and perform assessments?

A.

Audit & Assurance

B.

Security & Continuity

C.

Governance & Oversight

D.

Strategy & Performance

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Question # 61

How can an organization evaluate the adequacy of current levels of residual risk/reward and compliance?

A.

The organization can evaluate adequacy by looking at the number of lawsuits and enforcement actions.

B.

The organization can use analysis criteria to evaluate the adequacy of current levels and determine if additional analysis is required.

C.

The organization can evaluate adequacy by removing controls and seeing if the levels change.

D.

The organization can evaluate adequacy by hiring an outside auditor to make an assessment.

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Question # 62

What is the measure of the degree to which obligations and requirements are addressed?

A.

Noncompliance

B.

Compliance

C.

Violation

D.

Deviation

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Question # 63

What is the purpose of implementing incentives in an organization?

A.

To reduce the overall cost of employee compensation and benefits.

B.

To reduce the need for performance reviews and evaluations.

C.

To discourage employees from seeking employment opportunities elsewhere.

D.

To encourage the right proactive, detective, and responsive conduct in the workforce and extended enterprise.

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Question # 64

What is the significance of assurance controls in the PERFORM component?

A.

To promote transparency and accountability in the organization's decision-making processes.

B.

To ensure that the organization's financial statements are accurate and reliable.

C.

To provide sufficient information to assurance providers when management and governance actions and controls are not enough.

D.

To establish a clear chain of command and reporting structure within the organization.

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Question # 65

Which Critical Discipline of the Protector Skillset includes skills to address obligations and shape an ethical culture?

A.

Compliance & Ethics

B.

Security & Continuity

C.

Governance & Oversight

D.

Audit & Assurance

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Question # 66

What is the term used to describe the level of risk in the absence of actions and controls?

A.

Uncontrolled Risk

B.

Inherent Risk

C.

Vulnerability

D.

Residual Risk

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Question # 67

In the context of uncertainty, what is the difference between likelihood and impact?

A.

Likelihood is the chance of an event occurring after controls are put in place, while impact measures the economic and non-economic consequences of the event

B.

Likelihood is a measure of the chance of an event occurring, while impact is the category or type of risk or reward from the event

C.

Likelihood is a measure of the chance of an event occurring, while impact is the location of the event within the organization

D.

Likelihood is a measure of the chance of an event occurring, while impact measures the economic and non-economic consequences of the event

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Question # 68

What considerations should be taken into account when protecting information associated with notifications?

A.

Allowing unrestricted access to notification and follow-up information by the notifier so that they can see the organization is responding appropriately

B.

Knowing that any legal or regulatory requirements related to data privacy do not apply to hotline reports

C.

Ensuring pathways comply with mandatory requirements in the locale where the notification originates and the organization operates

D.

Knowing that confidentiality and anonymity rights are the same thing

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Question # 69

In the context of uncertainty, what is the difference between likelihood and impact?

A.

Likelihood is a measure of the chance of an event occurring, while impact is the location of the event within the organization.

B.

Likelihood is a measure of the chance of an event occurring, while impact is the category or type of risk or reward from the event.

C.

Likelihood is a measure of the chance of an event occurring, while impact measures the economic and non-economic consequences of the event.

D.

Likelihood is the chance of an event occurring after controls are put in place, while impact measures the economic and non-economic consequences of the event.

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Question # 70

What is the objective of improving actions and controls to address root causes and weaknesses associated with unfavorable events?

A.

To escalate incidents for investigation and identify them as in-house or external.

B.

To provide incentives to employees for favorable conduct.

C.

To determine if, when, how, and what to disclose regarding unfavorable events.

D.

To ensure that future events of similar nature are less likely to occur and are less harmful.

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Question # 71

What are the three orientations of actions and controls in the PERFORM component?

A.

Short-term, medium-term, and long-term orientations

B.

Financial, operational, and reputational orientations

C.

Management, governance, and assurance orientations

D.

Strategic, operational, and tactical orientations

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Question # 72

Why is it important to avoid "perverse incentives" in an incentive program?

A.

They encourage adverse conduct

B.

They are not tax-deductible

C.

They decrease employee satisfaction

D.

They violate anti-harassment laws

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Question # 73

In the context of the GRC Capability Model, what is culture defined as?

A.

A formal structure that is established by the leadership of an organization to ensure compliance with requirements, whether they are mandatory or voluntary obligations of the organization.

B.

An emergent property of a group of people caused by the interaction of individual beliefs, values, mindsets, and behaviors, and demonstrated by observable norms and articulated opinions.

C.

A set of written rules and guidelines that dictate the behavior of individuals within an organization.

D.

A collection of artifacts, symbols, and rituals that represent the history of an organization.

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Question # 74

Why is continual improvement considered a hallmark of a mature and high-performing capability and organization?

A.

Because it increases the organization's market share.

B.

Because it enables the capability and organization to evolve and enhance total performance.

C.

Because it ensures compliance with regulatory requirements.

D.

Because it reduces the likelihood of employee turnover.

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