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4A0-100 Questions and Answers

Question # 6

Which of the following IP header fields defines the way packets should be queued?

A.

Type of Service

B.

Identification

C.

Flags

D.

Protocol

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Question # 7

Which of the following about the displayed IP filter is TRUE?

A.

TCP (protocol 6) traffic between addresses 1.2.3.0/24 and 2.3.4.0/24 is dropped.

B.

TCP (protocol 6) traffic from source address 1.2.3.0/24 to destination address 2.3.4.0/24 is forwarded.

C.

TCP (protocol 6) traffic from source address 2.3.4.0/24 to destination address 1.2.3.0/24 is dropped.

D.

TCP (protocol 6) traffic from source address 1.2.3.0/24 to destination address 2.3.4.0/24 is dropped.

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Question # 8

Which of the following best describes a hub?

A.

A passive device used to connect cables without signal amplification.

B.

A device that receives and retransmits data without Layer 2 header inspection.

C.

A device that receives and retransmits data based on the Layer 2 destination address.

D.

A device that receives and retransmits data based on the Layer 3 destination address.

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Question # 9

Given the associated prefix value, which of the following is a valid host address?

A.

172.16.224.255/18

B.

255.255.255.255/32

C.

224.1.2.1/8

D.

192.168.24.59/30

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Question # 10

Which of the following is NOT an example of a Layer 2 protocol?

A.

POS

B.

IP

C.

ATM

D.

Frame Relay

E.

Ethernet

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Question # 11

What is the purpose of the broadcast address?

A.

Provides an address that refers to all the devices in a given network.

B.

Provides an address to refer to a specific group of devices in a given network.

C.

Provides an address to refer to a group of devices having the same IP addresses in different Layer 2 networks.

D.

Provides an address to refer to a single device on a given network.

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Question # 12

What protocol is used by ping to verify IP network reachability?

A.

DCHP

B.

ICMP

C.

ARP

D.

NAT

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Question # 13

What is the preference value in the routing table used for?

A.

To select from routes with different next-hops.

B.

To select from routes with different costs.

C.

To select from routes learned from different routing protocols.

D.

To select from routes with different prefixes.

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Question # 14

One of the tasks of the boot options file (BOF) is to:

A.

Specify authorization information to control access to the router.

B.

Define an IP address for the CPM Ethernet port.

C.

Initialize the hardware.

D.

Set the date/time for the system.

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Question # 15

Given a network address of 116.14.0.0, which of the following is a valid host address when using the subnet mask 255.255.255.240?

A.

116.14.17.16

B.

116.14.17.31

C.

116.14.17.192

D.

116.14.17.189

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Question # 16

Which of the following statements about IP filters on a Nokia 7750 SR is FALSE?

A.

IP filters can be applied on inbound traffic, outbound traffic, or both.

B.

IP filters can be created to filter based on IP and MAC addressing.

C.

By default, no IP filter is applied to an interface.

D.

The default action of an IP filter is to forward packets.

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Question # 17

On a Nokia 7750 SR, which of the following event log destinations is used to store an event log to the compact

flash?

A.

Console

B.

CLI

C.

Memory

D.

File

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Question # 18

Which of the following is a function of the Link layer?

A.

It is responsible for encapsulating packets into frames for transmission on physical media

B.

It is responsible for encapsulating packets into IP datagrams and routing them

C.

It is responsible for encapsulating application data into TCP/UDP messages

D.

It is responsible for the timing of the signals on physical media.

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Question # 19

A typical Nokia 7750 SR Media Dependent Adapter (MDA) interfaces with:

A.

A Small Form-Factor Pluggable (SFP) module.

B.

The Central Processing Unit (CPU).

C.

The Control Plane.

D.

The Switch Fabric.

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Question # 20

Which of the following command lines would be found in a list of commands designed to permit only certain type of traffic from exiting router RTR-A to router RTR-B?

A.

RTR-A>config>router>if>ingress# filter ip 1

B.

RTR-B>config>router>if>ingress# filter ip 1

C.

RTR-B>config>router>if>egress# filter ip 1

D.

RTR-A>config>router>if>egress# filter ip 1

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Question # 21

What is the basic unit of framing in SDH and the bit rate for its transmission?

A.

STM-1 with a bit rate of 1.544 Mbit/s

B.

STM-1 with a bit rate of 2.048 Mbit/s

C.

STM-1 with a bit rate of 51.84 Mbit/s

D.

STM-1 with a bit rate of 155.52 Mbit/s

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Question # 22

Which of the following are correct statements about MPLS labels? (Choose three.)

A.

A sequence of label actions from one LER to another LER represents a logical tunnel known as an LSP.

B.

MPLS labels must be dynamically signaled.

C.

Labels are globally significant to the MPLS network.

D.

MPLS labels may be dynamically signaled or statically assigned by the service provider.

E.

Labels are locally significant to the MPLS router.

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Question # 23

What information is used to separate VLANs on a VLAN trunk that connects multiple VLANs?

A.

VLAN tag.

B.

IP Header.

C.

FCS.

D.

Priority Value.

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Question # 24

Which of the following best describes an Ethernet switch?

A.

A passive device used to connect cables without signal amplification.

B.

A device that receives and retransmits data without Layer 2 header inspection.

C.

A device that receives and retransmits data based on the Layer 2 destination address.

D.

A device that receives and retransmits data based on the Layer 3 destination address.

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Question # 25

Which of the following is true of Ethernet half-duplex transmission?

A.

Half-duplex transmission is less efficient because the frame MTU is smaller.

B.

Half-duplex transmission is only 30-40% efficient because of collisions.

C.

Ethernet switches support half-duplex transmission only.

D.

All of the above.

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Question # 26

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the Internet?

A.

The Internet is a global and distributed network.

B.

The Internet is a network owned by Tier 1 service providers.

C.

The Internet is an open network of networks.

D.

The Internet is a network that is advertised across the globe.

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Question # 27

On what type of device is a Service Access Point (SAP) defined?

A.

On the CE device.

B.

On the PE device.

C.

On the P device.

D.

On both CE and PE devices.

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Question # 28

What is the purpose of the Data Link Layer in the OSI model?

A.

The Data Link Layer is responsible for encapsulating the packet into a frame for transmission on the transmission media.

B.

The Data Link Layer is responsible for encapsulating the packet into an IP header and routing the packet.

C.

The Data Link Layer is responsible for formatting the packet for applications such as JPEG format.

D.

The Data Link Layer is responsible for timing of the signals on the transmission media

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Question # 29

Which of the following is not supported on the Nokia 7450 ESS?

A.

Support for IPv6.

B.

Support for POS.

C.

Upgrade path to the Nokia 7750 SR.

D.

Support for IS-IS

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Question # 30

Which of the following is an important advantage of protocol layering? (Choose two.)

A.

Controls distribution of IP addresses.

B.

Simplifies protocol functionality.

C.

Isolates changes in lower layers from upper layers.

D.

Increases protocol operational efficiencies.

E.

Layering adds to the fragmentation of the data

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Question # 31

Which compact flash on a Control/Switch processor of an Nokia 7750 router stores the runtime image and running configuration?

A.

CF 1

B.

CF 2

C.

CF 3

D.

Both A and B

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Question # 32

Which of the following best describes the operation of the Media Dependent Adapter (MDA)?

A.

The MDA contains the flexible fast path complex used for forwarding data.

B.

Excess data is discarded by the MDA and the remaining data forwarded for QoS processing.

C.

The MDA buffers data and applies Quality of Service (QoS) to classify and treat the data appropriately.

D.

The MDA converts data from its incoming physical format into an internal format and provides some minimal buffering.

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Question # 33

Which of the following are protocols belonging to the OSI suite of protocols? (Choose two)

A.

OSPF

B.

BGP

C.

X.500

D.

IS-IS

E.

Ethernet

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Question # 34

Choose two true statements that characterize Link State Routing

A.

Routers send a copy of their routing table to their neighbors periodically.

B.

Routers flood link information throughout the entire area.

C.

Network converges quickly (within several seconds) after a topology change.

D.

Routers do not have precise knowledge of the entire network topology.

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Question # 35

Which of the following best describes the function of the service label?

A.

Customer traffic is encapsulated with a service label by the ingress PE. The service label identifies which transport tunnel to use.

B.

Customer traffic is encapsulated with a service label by the egress PE. The service label identifies which transport tunnel to use.

C.

Customer traffic is encapsulated with a service label by the egress PE. The service label identifies the specific service the data belongs to.

D.

Customer traffic is encapsulated with a service label by the ingress PE. The service label identifies the specific service the data belongs to.

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Question # 36

From the CE perspective, how does a VPLS operate?

A.

A VPLS operates as if 2 sites are directly connected by a single cable.

B.

A VPLS operates as if multiple sites are connected through a single switched LAN.

C.

A VPLS operates as if multiple sites are connected through a single router.

D.

A VPLS operates as if multiple sites are connected through a series of private point-to-point routed connections.

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Question # 37

If a customer requires a multipoint layer 2 VPN service between three or more locations which VPN service is best suited for this customer?

A.

Virtual Private Wire Service

B.

Virtual Private LAN Service

C.

Virtual Private Routed Networks

D.

Virtual Private Dark Fibre Service

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Question # 38

In regards to the Nokia 7750 SR-12 router, how many of the front access card slots are dedicated for Control Processors?

A.

1

B.

2

C.

7

D.

10

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Question # 39

What is the basic unit of framing in SDH and the bit rate for transmission?

A.

STM-1 with a bit rate of 1.544 Mbit/s.

B.

STM-1 with a bit rate of 2.048 Mbit/s.

C.

STM-1 with a bit rate of 51.84 Mbit/s.

D.

STM-1 with a bit rate of 155.52 Mbit/s.

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Question # 40

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding IP addressing?

A.

Classful IP addressing provides hierarchy based on variable subnet masks.

B.

Classless IP addresses provide hierarchy based on a variable length subnet mask.

C.

Classless IP addresses provide hierarchy based on fixed subnet masks of /24. /16 and/8.

D.

IP addresses provide hierarchy based on the country code and regional identifier.

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Question # 41

Which device is responsible for removing the MPLS label before the packet reaches the CE device?

A.

The CE device removes the MPLS label.

B.

The last LSR on the LSP removes the MPLS label.

C.

MPLS labels are not removed until they reach the final destination.

D.

The egress LER removes the MPLS label.

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Question # 42

Which of the following information can be seen within the FILE context of the SR 7x50? (Choose two.)

A.

File sizes

B.

Port statistics

C.

Log-id 100 files

D.

TiMOS image files

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Question # 43

What are the tasks of the Routing Table Manager (RTM)? (Choose two.)

A.

RTM selects the best route from among multiple routing protocols.

B.

RTM selects the best route using the metric as criteria

C.

RTM sends its best route to all its directly connected neighbors.

D.

RTM installs its best route in the routing table.

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Question # 44

Which of the following are TRUE statements about the router ID in OSPF? (Choose two.)

A.

A router ID is not required by OSPF.

B.

The system address is used as the router ID if router-id is not set.

C.

The router ID is used to uniquely identify every OSPF router.

D.

On the Nokia 7750 SR, the router ID is set to the highest logical IP address if router-id is not explicitly set.

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Question # 45

In the diagram, R3 receives an LSA with sequence number 112 from R7 and installs it in its link state database. 10 ms. Later it receives a copy of the same LSA with a sequence number of 111 from R1. What does R3 do with the LSA from R1?

A.

R3 discards the LSA received from R1 and sends a copy of the LSA from its link state base to R1.

B.

R3 installs the LSA received from R1 in its link state database and floods a copy to its neighbors.

C.

R3 discards the LSA received from R1 and sends an ACK to R1.

D.

R3 installs the LSA received from R1 in its link state database, sends an ACK to R1 and floods a copy to its neighbors.

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Question # 46

Which of the following applications would be likely to use UDP?

A.

Real-time audio application, such as VoIP

B.

Web browser

C.

Email application

D.

Telnet

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Question # 47

In the diagram, R3 receives an LSA with the sequence number 111 from R7 and then receives another copy of the LSA with a sequence number 112 from R1. What does R3 do with the LSA from R1?

A.

R3 discards the LSA received from R1 and sends a copy of the LSA from its link state base to R1.

B.

R3 installs the LSA received from R1 in its link state database and floods a copy to its neighbors.

C.

R3 discards the LSA received from R1 and sends an ACK to R1.

D.

R3 installs the LSA received from R1 in its link state database, sends an ACK to R1 and floods a copy to its neighbors.

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Question # 48

Based on the network diagram (click the Exhibit Button), what are the prefix, mask, and next-hop used on CR1 to setup a default static route to R1?

A.

0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 10.2 3.2

B.

0.0.0.0/32 next-hop 10.2.3.2

C.

10.2.3.2/32 next-hop 0.0.0.0/0

D.

0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 192.168.2.0

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Question # 49

Which transport protocol and port number is used by BGP to establish and maintain a peering session with other BGP speakers?

A.

TCP port 179.

B.

UDP port 179.

C.

TCP port 22.

D.

UDP port 22.

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Question # 50

What are some of the characteristics of BGP? (Choose three.)

A.

BGP is an exterior gateway protocol.

B.

BGP routing is based on distance vector.

C.

BGP sends periodic updates to its neighbors.

D.

A router running BGP protocol needs an Autonomous system number

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Question # 51

How does a VPRN service avoid the problem of overlapping IP addresses from different customers?

A.

You cannot have overlapping IP addresses. Customers must change their IP address assignment.

B.

Each VPRN service maintains a separate VPN routing and forwarding instance to separate customer routing information. This allows for overlapping addresses.

C.

A VPRN ignores IP addressing information and uses MAC addressing instead, which are always unique.

D.

A VPRN translates customer IP addresses to a private addressing scheme administered by the service provider.

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Question # 52

Choose two true statements that characterize Distance Vector Routing?

A.

Routers send a copy of their routing table to their neighbors periodically.

B.

Routers flood link information throughout the entire area.

C.

Network converges quickly (within several seconds) after a topology change.

D.

Routers do not have precise knowledge of the entire network topology.

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