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CTFL-Foundation Questions and Answers

Question # 6

Which of the following is a white-box test technique?

A.

Decision table testing

B.

Exploratory testing

C.

Statement testing

D.

Error guessing

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Question # 7

The decision table above shows a company's fuel expenses structure.

Which of the following Test Cases based on the decision table are Valid?

Test Case 1:

An employee who is not a car or motorcycle driver attempts to claim fuel expenses. Expected result: Expense claim not allowed.

Test Case 2:

An employee who drives a 1700cc diesel car attempts to claim fuel expenses. Expected result: Expense claim accepted at band C.

Test Case 3:

An employee who rides a motorcycle attempts to claim fuel expenses. Expected result: Expense claim accepted at band A.

A.

Test Cases 1 and 3 are Valid, Test Case 2 is Invalid.

B.

Test Cases 2 and 3 are Valid, Test Case 1 is Invalid

C.

Test Cases 1, 2 and 3 are all Valid.

D.

Test Cases 2 is Valid, Test Cases 1 and 3 are Invalid

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Question # 8

Which of the following represents good testing practice for testers, irrespective of the software lifecycle model used?

A.

They should start test analysis when the corresponding development level is complete

B.

They should be involved in reviewing requirements or user stories as soon as drafts are available

C.

They should ensure that the same test objectives apply to each test level

D.

They should minimize the ratio of development levels to test levels to reduce project costs

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Question # 9

In the above State Table, which of the following represents an invalid transition?

A.

Event C from S3

B.

Event E from S4

C.

Event B from S2

D.

Event D from S4

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Question # 10

Debugging and Testing are key activities in the software development lifecycle.

Which of the following are 'Debugging' activities?

a) Identifying, a failure

b) Locating the cause of failure

c) Fixing the defect

d) Checking the fix has resolved the failure

A.

a & d

B.

a & b

C.

b & c

D.

c & d

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Question # 11

Which of the following options explain why it is often beneficial to have an independent test function in an organisation?

A.

To improve defect finding during reviews and testing

B.

To ensure that developers adhere to coding standards

C.

To limit communication between developers and testers

D.

To provide better metrics for the stakeholders

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Question # 12

You have been asked to improve the way test automation tools are being used in your company.

Which one of the following is the BEST approach?

A.

Selecting and automating scripts that test new functionality to find the most defects

B.

Using a keyword-driven testing approach to separate the actions and data from the tool's script

C.

Ensuring that all data, inputs and actions are stored in the tool's script for ease of maintenance

D.

Keeping expected results separate from the automation tool to allow the testers to check the results

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Question # 13

A garden irrigation system allows the user to specify 2 inputs:

1. Frequency - The number of times the system should be automatically switched on per day; minimum once per day, maximum 5 times

2. Duration - The duration of operation, in whole minutes, each time it is switched on; ranging from 1 to 60

Applying 2-value boundary value analysis which of the following options has the correct test set of valid and invalid boundary values?

A.

Frequency 1, 5; Duration 1, 60

B.

Frequency 0, 1, 5, 6; Duration 59 seconds, 1 minute, 60 minutes, 60 minutes 1 second

C.

Frequency 0, 1, 5, 6; Duration 0, 1, 30, 60, 61

D.

Frequency 0, 1, 2, 5, 6; Duration 0, 1, 30, 60, 61

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Question # 14

A system requirement states that up to 100 users should be able to carry out a transaction, with responses returned within 5 seconds.

What type of non-functional testing would you carry out to verify these requirements?

A.

Stress testing

B.

Maintenance testing

C.

Load testing

D.

Usability testing

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Question # 15

During the development of a software change for a system, the developer makes a mistake in his work, which leads to a fault in the code. Unfortunately the fault is not found by software testing and is released into live.

What is the definite consequence of this mistake?

A.

The system will fail, causing a defect

B.

If the defect is executed, the system may fail

C.

Loss of money, time, or business reputation

D.

Contractual requirements have not been met by testing

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Question # 16

A booking system for a city bus service prices its fares according to the time of travel:

• Peak-time tariff starts at 0600 and finishes at 1000 am

• Off-peak tariff applies during all other times of service

• The bus service does not operate between 2300 and the start of the next day’s peak service

Note that all times mentioned are inclusive.

When applying the equivalence partitioning test design technique, which of the following options, shows test case inputs that each fall into a different equivalence partition?

A.

0600, 1000, 1200

B.

1001, 1300, 2259

C.

0100, 0800, 2200

D.

2400, 1000, 2301

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Question # 17

Testing effort can depend on a number of factors, which one of following is MOST likely to impact the amount of effort required?

A.

The predicted number of defects and the amount of rework required

B.

The ratio of developers to testers in the project team

C.

The planned use of a project management tool to schedule tasks

D.

The responsibilities for testers and developers being clearly defined

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Question # 18

Which option BEST describes how the level of risk is determined?

A.

The likelihood of an adverse event happening multiplied by the cost of preventing it

B.

The consequences of a potential problem multiplied by the cost of possible legal action

C.

The impact of an adverse event multiplied by the likelihood of that event occurring

D.

The likelihood and the probability of a hazard occurring

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Question # 19

When considering the roles of test leader and tester, which of the following tasks would NOT typically be performed by a tester?

A.

Prepare and acquire the test data

B.

Set up and check the test environment

C.

Write test summary reports

D.

Review tests developed by others

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Question # 20

A new testing tool has been selected for an organisation and a pilot project has successfully completed. The next step is to deploy the tool within the organization.

What is a key success factor in tool deployment?

A.

Estimate a cost-benefit ratio based on a firm business case

B.

Determine whether benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost

C.

Provide support for the test team using the tool

D.

Assessment of organisational maturity, strengths and weaknesses

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Question # 21

Which of the following would you NOT expect to see on an incident report from test execution?

A.

The version(s) of the software under test

B.

The test execution schedule

C.

Expected results and actual results

D.

Precise steps to reproduce the problem

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Question # 22

During which stage of the fundamental test process is the testability of requirements evaluated?

A.

Test Implementation and Execution

B.

Test Planning and Control

C.

Evaluating Exit Criteria and Reporting

D.

Test Analysis and Design

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Question # 23

You are examining a document which gives the precise steps needed in order to execute a test.

What is the correct definition of this document?

A.

Test design specification

B.

Test condition

C.

Test procedure specification

D.

Test case specification

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Question # 24

Which of the following would NOT be a common metric used for monitoring test preparation and execution?

A.

Number of Test cases passed and failed

B.

Percentage of planned test cases designed

C.

Number of test plan review comments

D.

Percentage of tasks complete in test environment preparation

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Question # 25

Which of the following is a defect that is more likely to be found by a static analysis tool than by other testing techniques?

A.

Omission of a major requirement

B.

Inadequate decision coverage

C.

Component memory leakage

D.

Variables that are not used improperly declared

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Question # 26

Which of the following does NOT represent one of the three triggers for maintenance testing an operational system?

A.

Data migration

B.

System retirement

C.

System modification

D.

Introduction of a test management tool

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Question # 27

The decision table above reflects a golf club's pricing structure for green fees and buggy/cart hire.

What is the expected result (actions) for each of the following two test cases (TC1 and TC2)?

* TC 1 - Paul is not a full member, is a Loyalty Card holder and requests to play 18 holes with a buggy/cart

* TC 2 - Cheryl is not at full member, doesn't have a Loyalty Card and requests to play 9 holes with a buggy/cart

A.

TC1 - £23 total charges including buggy hire; TC2 - £21 total charge including buggy hire

B.

TC1 - £18 total charges including buggy hire; TC2 - £16 total charge but no buggy allowed

C.

TC1 - £23 total charges including buggy hire; TC2 - £16 total charge but no buggy allowed

D.

TC1 - £17 total charges but no buggy allowed; TC2 - £21 total charge including buggy hire

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Question # 28

Which of the following activities is appropriate to the test planning stage?

A.

Analysing the test basis

B.

Assigning resources for the planned activities

C.

Designing the test environments

D.

Writing a test execution schedule

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Question # 29

Why is measurement of code coverage Important?

A.

Because 100% code coverage implies 100% coverage of requirements

B.

Because 100% code coverage guarantees that there are no coding errors

C.

Because code coverage can be used to ensure that all code is exercised by tests

D.

Because code coverage can ensure that all decisions are correctly implemented in the code

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Question # 30

Which of the following is NOT a valid use of decision coverage?

A.

Checking that all decisions have been exercised in a single program

B.

Checking that all decisions have been exercised in a business process

C.

Checking that all calls from one program module to another have been made correctly

D.

Checking that at least 50% of decisions have been exercised by a test case suite

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Question # 31

Which of the following is a Black Box test design technique?

A.

Decision Coverage

B.

Error Guessing

C.

Statement Coverage

D.

Equivalence Partitioning

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Question # 32

A system is being enhanced to simplify screen navigation for users.

Which of the following does NOT reflect structural testing?

A.

To test all paths that users could take through the screen menu system

B.

To ensure that 100% decision testing is achieved for each system component

C.

To test all branches of component calls within the application call graph

D.

To ensure that users can navigate to all fields on the screen

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Question # 33

Which of the following BEST describes the relationship between test planning and test execution? [K2]

A.

Test planning ensures the level of detail in test procedures is appropriate for test execution

B.

Test planning schedules test execution but does not assign resources

C.

Test planning defines the overall approach to testing but does not schedule specific activities such as test execution

D.

Test planning identifies test objectives related to scope and risk but does not define the level of detail for test procedures used in test execution

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Question # 34

Which of the following correctly states a limitation in the use of static analysis tools? [K1]

A.

Static analysis tools can be applied to new code but cannot be applied to existing code

B.

Static analysis tools can be used to enforce coding standards

C.

Static analysis tools always generate large numbers of warning messages when applied to new code, even if the code meets coding standards

D.

Static analysis tools do not generate warning messages when applied to existing code

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Question # 35

Which of the following test design techniques is not a black box technique?

A.

Equivalence partitioning

B.

State transition testing

C.

Boundary value analysis

D.

Statement coverage

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Question # 36

Which statement BEST describes when test planning should be performed? [K1]

A.

Test planning is performed only once, at the beginning of the life cycle, andgenerates a Master Test Plan

B.

Test planning is performed at the beginning of the life cycle and again at the beginning of test execution

C.

Test planning is performed at the beginning of the life cycle and again at every test level

D.

Test planning is performed continuously in all life cycle processes and activities

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Question # 37

A data driven approach to test automation design is best described as:

A.

Using action words to describe the actions to be taken, the test data.

B.

Scaling to support large numbers of users.

C.

Being based on Equivalence Partitioning testing techniques.

D.

Separating out the test data inputs and using a generic script that can read the test data and perform the same test steps with different data.

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Question # 38

Which from the following list are typically found to enable the review process to be successful? [K2]

a. Each review has clear defined objectives

b. The lower the number of defects, the better the review process

c. The right people for the review objective are involved

d. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement

e. Management are not involved in the process at all

f. Checklists should not be used, as these slow down the process

g. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively

A.

a, f and g.

B.

b, c and f.

C.

a, c and d.

D.

d, e and g.

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Question # 39

Which of the following test cases will ensure that the statement ‘Print ‘Hold’’ is exercised? [K3]

Refer to the exhibit

A.

X=2, Y=2, Z=2

B.

X=2, Y=3, Z=4

C.

X=2, Y=4, Z=3

D.

X=4, Y=3, Z=2

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Question # 40

Which of the following would NOT be a typical target of testing support tools?

A.

Automate activities that require significant resources when done manually

B.

Automate activities that cannot be executed manually

C.

Automate repetitive tasks

D.

Automating repetitive inspections

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Question # 41

Which of the following processes ensures that all items of testware are identified, version controlled, tracked for changes, so that traceability can be maintained throughout the test process?

A.

Software traceability process

B.

Incidence management process

C.

Testing design process

D.

Configuration management process

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Question # 42

Which of the following statements is most true about test conditions?

A.

An item or event of a component or system that can be verified by one or more test cases.

B.

The grouping of a composite set of test cases which, when tested as a whole, reveal a positive or negative result.

C.

A testable component derived from business requirements.

D.

Applies to software testing only.

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Question # 43

Which of the following characteristics is most likely to promote effective software testing? [K1]

A.

Independence from the production process

B.

A belief that programmers always make mistakes

C.

Knowledge of the number of defects typically found in a program

D.

Confidence that the next stage will find defects missed at this stage

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Question # 44

Which of the following statements about software development models is most accurate? [K1]

A.

The 4 stage V model is always the best choice of software development model for any project

B.

The agile development model is usually most appropriate for short projects

C.

The choice of software development model depends on product and project characteristics

D.

The 2 stage V model is the most appropriate development model for simple products

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Question # 45

Consider the following pseudo code

1. Begin

2. Read Gender

3. __Print “Dear”

4. If Gender = ‘female’

5. Print (“Ms”)

6. Else

7. __Print ( “Mr”)

8. Endif

9. End

How many test cases are needed to achieve 100 per cent decision coverage?

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

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Question # 46

A system calculates the amount of customs duty to be paid:

_ No duty is paid on goods value up to, and including, $2,000.

_ The next $8,000 is taxed at 10%.

_ The next $20,000 after that is taxed at 12%.

_ Any further amount after that is taxed at 17%.

To the nearest $, which of these groups of numbers fall into three DIFFERENT equivalence classes?

A.

$20,000 $20,001 $30,001

B.

$2,000 $2,001 $10,000

C.

$2,000 $8,000 $20,000

D.

$1,500 $2,000 $10,000

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Question # 47

Which of the following accurately defines the integration testing test level? [K2]

A.

Test basis includes software and system design, test objects include interfaces, and tests concentrate on the interactions between different parts of a system

B.

Test basis includes component requirements, test objects include database modules, and tests concentrate on the behaviour of the system as a whole.

C.

Test basis includes business processes, test objects include system configuration and configuration data, and tests concentrate on establishing confidence in the system

D.

Test basis includes use cases, test objects include user procedures and tests concentrate on a high level model of system behaviour

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Question # 48

The Cambrian Pullman Express has special ticketing requirements represented by the partial decision table below.

Refer to the exhibit

Carol has a student railcard and is travelling on a Flexible Standard Class ticket. James has a senior railcard and is travelling on a super saver ticket. Which of the options represents the correct actions for these two test cases? [K3]

A.

Carol is eligible to upgrade; James cannot use the service

B.

Carol is OK to travel; James is eligible for an upgrade

C.

Carol and James are both eligible to upgrade

D.

Carol is OK to travel; James cannot use the service

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Question # 49

When an organization considers the use of testing tools, they should:

A.

Use a tool in order to help define a good test process because the tool will force process repeatability and therefore enforce good test process.

B.

Always start by bringing in automated test execution tools as these tools have the greatest return on investment and therefore should be introduced first.

C.

Perform analysis of the test process and then assess whether it can be supported through the introduction of tool support.

D.

Allow the developers to select the testing tools because tools are technical and developers have the appropriate skills to advise on test tool selection and configuration.

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Question # 50

An iPhone application identifies and counts all purchases of a particular product from a shopping website. The application incorrectly counts purchase attempts by including both failed attempts, and also those where the purchase was terminated by the user before completion. Testing has identified that the problem was located in the ‘purchase identification’ module, where the first stage in the purchasing process was counted, rather than a successful confirmed purchase.

Which of the following statements correctly identifies what has happened? [K2]

A.

The application failed because of a defect in the purchase identification module caused by a programmer mistake or an error in the specification.

B.

An error by the programmer led to a mistake in the purchase identification module and this caused a defect in the application

C.

A defect in the purchase identification module caused by a mistake in the module specification led to a defect in the overall application

D.

A bug in the purchase identification module caused a fault in the application

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Question # 51

Testers are often seen as the bearer of unwanted news regarding defects. What are effective ways to improve the communication and relationship between testers and others?

a)Communicate factual information in a constructive way.

b)Try to understand how the other person feels and why they react the way they do.

c)Always outsource testing activities.

d)Never record information that could be used to apportion blame to an individual or team.

A.

a and b

B.

a, b and c

C.

a, b and d

D.

a and c

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Question # 52

Test script TransVal 3.1 tests transaction validation via screen TRN 003B. According to the specification (PID ver 1.3 10b iv) the validation screen should not accept future dated transactions. Test script TransVal 3.1 passes. Test script eod 1.4 tests end of day processing and is run after the execution of TransVal 3.1 using data entered during that test

Which of the following is the BEST detail on an incident report? [K3]

A.

Title. End of Day failure.. Reproducible. Yes. Description. Script eod 1.4 fails when the first transaction of the day is a future dated transaction. Screen shot of the failure attached.

B.

Title. Transaction input screen validation..Reproducible. Yes. Description. Script eod 1..4 fails . Screen shot of the failure attached. Validation of transaction entryon screen TRN-003B should not allow future dated transactions – see PID ver 1.3 para 10b iv.

C.

Title. Screen TRN-003B validation of transaction date.. Reproducible. No. Description. When a future dated transaction is processed by the end of day process, a failure can occur. This does not always happen. Screen shot of the failure attached.

D.

Title. Screen TRN-003B validation of transaction date. Reproducible. Yes. Description. Script eod 1.4 fails when the first transaction of the day is a future dated transaction. Screen shot of the failure attached. Validation of transaction entry on screen TRN-003B should not allow future dated transactions – see PID ver 1.3 para 10b iv.

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Question # 53

What factors should be considered to determine whether enough testing has been performed?

(i)The exit criteria.

(ii)The budget.

(iii)How big the test team is.

(iv)The product's risk profile.

(v)How good the testing tools are.

(vi)Sufficient details of the system status to allow decisions

A.

i and ii and iv and vi

B.

i and ii and iii and vi

C.

ii and iii and iv and v

D.

i and ii and v and vi

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Question # 54

Which of the following metrics could be used to monitor progress along with test preparation and execution? [K1]

A.

The total number of tests planned

B.

The total number of requirements to be tested

C.

The failure rate in testing already completed

D.

The number of testers used for test execution so far

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Question # 55

Pick the best definition of quality:

A.

Quality is job one

B.

Zero defects

C.

Conformance to requirements

D.

Work as designed

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Question # 56

Which of the following are most characteristic of structure-based testing?

(i) Information about how the software is constructed is used to derive test cases.

(ii) Statement coverage and/or decision coverage can be measured for existing test cases.

(iii) The knowledge and experience of people are used to derive test cases.

(iv) Test cases are derived from a model or specification of the system.

A.

(i) and (ii)

B.

(ii) and (iii)

C.

(ii) and (iv)

D.

(i) and (iii)

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Question # 57

Which of the following could be a reason for a failure?

1) Testing fault

2) Software fault

3) Design fault

4) Environment Fault

5) Documentation Fault

A.

2 is a valid reason; 1, 3, 4 & 5 are not

B.

1, 2, 3, 4 are valid reasons; 5 is not

C.

1, 2, 3 are valid reasons; 4 & 5 are not

D.

All of them are valid reasons for failure

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Question # 58

Consider the following statements about early test design:

i. Early test design can prevent fault multiplication

ii. Faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix

iii. Early test design can find faults

iv. Early test design can cause changes to the requirements

v. Early test design takes more effort

A.

i, iii & iv are true. ii & v are false

B.

iii is true, i, ii, iv & v are false

C.

iii & iv are true. i, ii & v are false

D.

i, iii, iv & v are true, ii us false

E.

i & iii are true, ii, iv & v are false

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Question # 59

Which of the following is true of iterative development?

A.

It uses fully defined specifications from the start.

B.

It involves the users in the testing throughout.

C.

Changes to the system do not need to be formally recorded.

D.

It is not suitable for developing websites.

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Question # 60

Which of the following is most likely to be a benefit of using static techniques?

A.

Fewer performance defects.

B.

Productivity improvements in the development process.

C.

More efficient regression testing.

D.

Quick return on investment in static analysis tools.

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Question # 61

Which of the following describes structure-based (white-box) test case design techniques?

A.

Test cases are derived systematically from models of the system.

B.

Test cases are derived systematically from the tester's experience.

C.

Test cases are derived systematically from the delivered code.

D.

Test cases are derived from the developers' experience.

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Question # 62

Which of the following is usually the test basis for integration testing?

A.

Program specification

B.

Functional specification

C.

Technical specification

D.

Requirement specification

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Question # 63

What is retesting?

A.

Running the same test again in the same circumstances to reproduce the problem.

B.

A cursory run through a test pack to see if any new errors have been introduced.

C.

Checking that the predetermined exit criteria for the test phase have been met.

D.

Running a previously failed test against new software/data/documents to see if the problem is solved.

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Question # 64

The five parts of the fundamental test process have a broad chronological order. Which of the options gives three different parts in the correct order?

A.

Implementation and execution, planning and control, analysis and design.

B.

Analysis and design, evaluating exit criteria and reporting, test closure activities.

C.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting, implementation and execution, analysis and design.

D.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting, test closure activities, analysis and design.

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Question # 65

Which activities form part of test planning?

i) Developing test cases.

ii) Defining the overall approach to testing.

iii) Assigning resources.

iv) Building the test environment.

v) Writing test conditions.

A.

i, ii & iv are true, iii & v are false.

B.

ii & iii are true, i, iv & v are false.

C.

iv & v are true, i, ii & iii are false.

D.

i, ii & iii are true iv & v are false.

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Question # 66

Test Implementation and execution has which of the following major tasks?

i. Developing and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally preparing the test harnesses and writing automated test scripts.

ii. Creating the test suite from the test cases for efficient test execution.

iii. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly.

iv. Determining the exit criteria.

A.

i, ii, iii are true and iv is false

B.

i, iv are true and ii is false

C.

i, ii are true and iii, iv are false

D.

ii, iii, iv are true and i is false

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Question # 67

The effect of testing is to:

A.

Increase software quality;

B.

Give an indication of the software quality;

C.

Enable those responsible for software failures to be identified;

D.

Show there are no problems remaining?

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Question # 68

Which of the following is a non-functional requirement?

A.

The system will enable users to buy books.

B.

The system will allow users to return books.

C.

The system will ensure security of the customer details.

D.

The system will allow up to 100 users to log in at the same time.

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Question # 69

What do you mean by “Having to say NO”..?

A.

No, the problem is not with testers

B.

No, the software is not ready for production

C.

Both a & b

D.

None of the above

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Question # 70

To test a function, the programmer has to write a _________, which calls the function to be tested and passes it test data:

A.

Stub

B.

Driver

C.

Proxy

D.

None of the above

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Question # 71

The difference between re-testing and regression testing is:

A.

Re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side effects

B.

Re-testing looks for unexpected side effects; regression testing is repeating those tests

C.

Re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier

D.

Re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses the same environment

E.

Re-testing is done by developers, regression testing is done by independent testers

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Question # 72

Which of the following is not true of regression testing?

A.

It can be carried out at each stage of the life cycle.

B.

It serves to demonstrate that the changed software works as intended.

C.

It serves to demonstrate that software has not been unintentionally changed.

D.

It is often automated.

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Question # 73

Which of the following statements are TRUE? A. Regression testing and acceptance testing are the same. B. Regression tests show if all defects have been resolved. C. Regression tests are typically well-suited for test automation. D. Regression tests are performed to find out if code changes have introduced or uncovered defects. E. Regression tests should be performed in integration testing.

A.

A, C and D and E are true; B is false.

B.

A, C and E are true; B and D are false.

C.

C and D are true; A, B and E are false.

D.

B and E are true; A, C and D are false.

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Question # 74

Which of the following is the main purpose of the component build and integration strategy?

A.

to ensure that all of the small components are tested

B.

to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks

C.

to ensure that the integration testing can be performed by a small team

D.

to specify how the software should be divided into components

E.

to specify which components to combine when, and how many at once

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Question # 75

A software component has the code shown below:

Program BiggestA,

Biggest: Integer

Begin

Read A

Biggest = 10

While A > 0

Do

If A > Biggest

Then Biggest = A

Endif

Read A

Enddo

End

The component has exit criteria for component testing that include 100% statement coverage. Which of the following test cases will satisfy this criterion?

A.

0

B.

10, 0

C.

10, 5, 0

D.

10, 11, 0

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Question # 76

What should be the MAIN objective during development testing?

A.

To cause as many failures as possible so that defects in the software are identified and can be fixed

B.

To confirm that the system works as expected and that requirements have been met

C.

To assess the quality of the software with no intention of fixing defects

D.

To give information to stakeholders of the risk of releasing the system at a given time

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Question # 77

Which of the following is not a major task of Exit criteria?

A.

Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.

B.

Logging the outcome of test execution.

C.

Assessing if more tests are needed.

D.

Writing a test summary report for stakeholders.

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Question # 78

Which of the following is most likely to be performed by developers?

A.

Technical review of a functional specification.

B.

Walkthrough of a requirements document.

C.

Informal review of a program specification.

D.

Static analysis of a software model.

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Question # 79

Which of the following is most likely to cause failure in the implementation of a test tool?

A.

Underestimating the demand for a tool.

B.

The purchase price of the tool.

C.

No agreed requirements for the tool.

D.

The cost of resources to implement and maintain the tool.

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Question # 80

Which of the following are valid justifications for developers testing their own code during unit testing?

(i) Their lack of independence is mitigated by independent testing during system and acceptance testing.

(ii) A person with a good understanding of the code can find more defects more quickly using white-box techniques.

(iii) Developers have a better understanding of the requirements than testers.

(iv) Testers write unnecessary incident reports because they find minor differences between the way in which the system behaves and the way in which it is specified to work.

A.

(i) and (ii)

B.

(i) and (iv)

C.

(ii) and (iii)

D.

(iii) and (iv)

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Question # 81

Testing should be stopped when:

A.

All the planned tests have been run

B.

Time has run out

C.

All faults have been fixed correctly

D.

Both A and C

E.

It depends on the risks for the system being tested

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