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SSCP Questions and Answers

Question # 6

Which of the following results in the most devastating business interruptions?

A.

Loss of Hardware/Software

B.

Loss of Data

C.

Loss of Communication Links

D.

Loss of Applications

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Question # 7

Which of the following categories of hackers poses the greatest threat?

A.

Disgruntled employees

B.

Student hackers

C.

Criminal hackers

D.

Corporate spies

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Question # 8

Who should direct short-term recovery actions immediately following a disaster?

A.

Chief Information Officer.

B.

Chief Operating Officer.

C.

Disaster Recovery Manager.

D.

Chief Executive Officer.

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Question # 9

An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is what type of control?

A.

A preventive control.

B.

A detective control.

C.

A recovery control.

D.

A directive control.

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Question # 10

Which of the following is a large hardware/software backup system that uses the RAID technology?

A.

Tape Array.

B.

Scale Array.

C.

Crimson Array

D.

Table Array.

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Question # 11

What is the 802.11 standard related to?

A.

Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)

B.

Wireless network communications

C.

Packet-switching technology

D.

The OSI/ISO model

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Question # 12

A proxy is considered a:

A.

first generation firewall.

B.

third generation firewall.

C.

second generation firewall.

D.

fourth generation firewall.

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Question # 13

Which backup method only copies files that have been recently added or changed and also leaves the archive bit unchanged?

A.

Full backup method

B.

Incremental backup method

C.

Fast backup method

D.

Differential backup method

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Question # 14

What can best be defined as the detailed examination and testing of the security features of an IT system or product to ensure that they work correctly and effectively and do not show any logical vulnerabilities, such as evaluation criteria?

A.

Acceptance testing

B.

Evaluation

C.

Certification

D.

Accreditation

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Question # 15

The fact that a network-based IDS reviews packets payload and headers enable which of the following?

A.

Detection of denial of service

B.

Detection of all viruses

C.

Detection of data corruption

D.

Detection of all password guessing attacks

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Question # 16

A momentary low voltage, from 1 cycle to a few seconds, is a:

A.

spike

B.

blackout

C.

sag

D.

fault

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Question # 17

Which of the following statements regarding an off-site information processing facility is TRUE?

A.

It should have the same amount of physical access restrictions as the primary processing site.

B.

It should be located in proximity to the originating site so that it can quickly be made operational.

C.

It should be easily identified from the outside so in the event of an emergency it can be easily found.

D.

Need not have the same level of environmental monitoring as the originating site since this would be cost prohibitive.

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Question # 18

Configuration Management controls what?

A.

Auditing of changes to the Trusted Computing Base.

B.

Control of changes to the Trusted Computing Base.

C.

Changes in the configuration access to the Trusted Computing Base.

D.

Auditing and controlling any changes to the Trusted Computing Base.

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Question # 19

Which expert system operating mode allows determining if a given hypothesis is valid?

A.

Blackboard

B.

Lateral chaining

C.

Forward chaining

D.

Backward chaining

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Question # 20

What is defined as the rules for communicating between computers on a Local Area Network (LAN)?

A.

LAN Media Access methods

B.

LAN topologies

C.

LAN transmission methods

D.

Contention Access Control

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Question # 21

Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) provides some of the services of Authentication Headers (AH), but it is primarily designed to provide:

A.

Confidentiality

B.

Cryptography

C.

Digital signatures

D.

Access Control

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Question # 22

Secure Shell (SSH) is a strong method of performing:

A.

client authentication

B.

server authentication

C.

host authentication

D.

guest authentication

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Question # 23

Which of the following is an IP address that is private (i.e. reserved for internal networks, and not a valid address to use on the Internet)?

A.

172.12.42.5

B.

172.140.42.5

C.

172.31.42.5

D.

172.15.42.5

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Question # 24

The Logical Link Control sub-layer is a part of which of the following?

A.

The ISO/OSI Data Link layer

B.

The Reference monitor

C.

The Transport layer of the TCP/IP stack model

D.

Change management control

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Question # 25

Which type of firewall can be used to track connectionless protocols such as UDP and RPC?

A.

Stateful inspection firewalls

B.

Packet filtering firewalls

C.

Application level firewalls

D.

Circuit level firewalls

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Question # 26

Which of the following statements pertaining to PPTP (Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol) is incorrect?

A.

PPTP allow the tunnelling of any protocols that can be carried within PPP.

B.

PPTP does not provide strong encryption.

C.

PPTP does not support any token-based authentication method for users.

D.

PPTP is derived from L2TP.

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Question # 27

What is called the access protection system that limits connections by calling back the number of a previously authorized location?

A.

Sendback systems

B.

Callback forward systems

C.

Callback systems

D.

Sendback forward systems

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Question # 28

A DMZ is also known as a

A.

screened subnet

B.

three legged firewall

C.

a place to attract hackers

D.

bastion host

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Question # 29

What is the main issue with media reuse?

A.

Degaussing

B.

Data remanence

C.

Media destruction

D.

Purging

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Question # 30

Which conceptual approach to intrusion detection system is the most common?

A.

Behavior-based intrusion detection

B.

Knowledge-based intrusion detection

C.

Statistical anomaly-based intrusion detection

D.

Host-based intrusion detection

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Question # 31

What IDS approach relies on a database of known attacks?

A.

Signature-based intrusion detection

B.

Statistical anomaly-based intrusion detection

C.

Behavior-based intrusion detection

D.

Network-based intrusion detection

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Question # 32

Contracts and agreements are often times unenforceable or hard to enforce in which of the following alternate facility recovery agreement?

A.

hot site

B.

warm site

C.

cold site

D.

reciprocal agreement

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Question # 33

Hierarchical Storage Management (HSM) is commonly employed in:

A.

very large data retrieval systems

B.

very small data retrieval systems

C.

shorter data retrieval systems

D.

most data retrieval systems

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Question # 34

Which backup method is used if backup time is critical and tape space is at an extreme premium?

A.

Incremental backup method.

B.

Differential backup method.

C.

Full backup method.

D.

Tape backup method.

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Question # 35

What can be described as an imaginary line that separates the trusted components of the TCB from those elements that are NOT trusted?

A.

The security kernel

B.

The reference monitor

C.

The security perimeter

D.

The reference perimeter

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Question # 36

What is defined as the hardware, firmware and software elements of a trusted computing base that implement the reference monitor concept?

A.

The reference monitor

B.

Protection rings

C.

A security kernel

D.

A protection domain

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Question # 37

Which of the following is not a component of a Operations Security "triples"?

A.

Asset

B.

Threat

C.

Vulnerability

D.

Risk

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Question # 38

In an organization, an Information Technology security function should:

A.

Be a function within the information systems function of an organization.

B.

Report directly to a specialized business unit such as legal, corporate security or insurance.

C.

Be lead by a Chief Security Officer and report directly to the CEO.

D.

Be independent but report to the Information Systems function.

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Question # 39

When backing up an applications system's data, which of the following is a key question to be answered first?

A.

When to make backups

B.

Where to keep backups

C.

What records to backup

D.

How to store backups

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Question # 40

Related to information security, integrity is the opposite of which of the following?

A.

abstraction

B.

alteration

C.

accreditation

D.

application

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Question # 41

Which of the following would provide the BEST stress testing environment taking under consideration and avoiding possible data exposure and leaks of sensitive data?

A.

Test environment using test data.

B.

Test environment using sanitized live workloads data.

C.

Production environment using test data.

D.

Production environment using sanitized live workloads data.

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Question # 42

Which of the following should be emphasized during the Business Impact Analysis (BIA) considering that the BIA focus is on business processes?

A.

Composition

B.

Priorities

C.

Dependencies

D.

Service levels

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Question # 43

What would be considered the biggest drawback of Host-based Intrusion Detection systems (HIDS)?

A.

It can be very invasive to the host operating system

B.

Monitors all processes and activities on the host system only

C.

Virtually eliminates limits associated with encryption

D.

They have an increased level of visibility and control compared to NIDS

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Question # 44

Which of the following is a disadvantage of a statistical anomaly-based intrusion detection system?

A.

it may truly detect a non-attack event that had caused a momentary anomaly in the system.

B.

it may falsely detect a non-attack event that had caused a momentary anomaly in the system.

C.

it may correctly detect a non-attack event that had caused a momentary anomaly in the system.

D.

it may loosely detect a non-attack event that had caused a momentary anomaly in the system.

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Question # 45

Which of the following algorithms is a stream cipher?

A.

RC2

B.

RC4

C.

RC5

D.

RC6

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Question # 46

What can be defined as a momentary low voltage?

A.

Spike

B.

Sag

C.

Fault

D.

Brownout

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Question # 47

The absence of a safeguard, or a weakness in a system that may possibly be exploited is called a(n)?

A.

Threat

B.

Exposure

C.

Vulnerability

D.

Risk

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Question # 48

A deviation from an organization-wide security policy requires which of the following?

A.

Risk Acceptance

B.

Risk Assignment

C.

Risk Reduction

D.

Risk Containment

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Question # 49

The IP header contains a protocol field. If this field contains the value of 51, what type of data is contained within the ip datagram?

A.

Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

B.

Authentication Header (AH)

C.

User datagram protocol (UDP)

D.

Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)

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Question # 50

Compared to RSA, which of the following is true of Elliptic Curve Cryptography(ECC)?

A.

It has been mathematically proved to be more secure.

B.

It has been mathematically proved to be less secure.

C.

It is believed to require longer key for equivalent security.

D.

It is believed to require shorter keys for equivalent security.

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Question # 51

Which of the following is best at defeating frequency analysis?

A.

Substitution cipher

B.

Polyalphabetic cipher

C.

Transposition cipher

D.

Ceasar Cipher

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Question # 52

What is the role of IKE within the IPsec protocol?

A.

peer authentication and key exchange

B.

data encryption

C.

data signature

D.

enforcing quality of service

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Question # 53

Which of the following offers confidentiality to an e-mail message?

A.

The sender encrypting it with its private key.

B.

The sender encrypting it with its public key.

C.

The sender encrypting it with the receiver's public key.

D.

The sender encrypting it with the receiver's private key.

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Question # 54

Which of the following virus types changes some of its characteristics as it spreads?

A.

Boot Sector

B.

Parasitic

C.

Stealth

D.

Polymorphic

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Question # 55

Which of the following security mode of operation does NOT require all users to have the clearance for all information processed on the system?

A.

Compartmented security mode

B.

Multilevel security mode

C.

System-high security mode

D.

Dedicated security mode

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Question # 56

Which of the following Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) uses a database of attacks, known system vulnerabilities, monitoring current attempts to exploit those vulnerabilities, and then triggers an alarm if an attempt is found?

A.

Knowledge-Based ID System

B.

Application-Based ID System

C.

Host-Based ID System

D.

Network-Based ID System

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Question # 57

Which of the following statements pertaining to link encryption is false?

A.

It encrypts all the data along a specific communication path.

B.

It provides protection against packet sniffers and eavesdroppers.

C.

Information stays encrypted from one end of its journey to the other.

D.

User information, header, trailers, addresses and routing data that are part of the packets are encrypted.

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Question # 58

What is a packet sniffer?

A.

It tracks network connections to off-site locations.

B.

It monitors network traffic for illegal packets.

C.

It scans network segments for cabling faults.

D.

It captures network traffic for later analysis.

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Question # 59

In stateful inspection firewalls, packets are:

A.

Inspected at only one layer of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model

B.

Inspected at all Open System Interconnection (OSI) layers

C.

Decapsulated at all Open Systems Interconnect (OSI) layers.

D.

Encapsulated at all Open Systems Interconnect (OSI) layers.

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Question # 60

Layer 4 of the OSI stack is known as:

A.

the data link layer

B.

the transport layer

C.

the network layer

D.

the presentation layer

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Question # 61

What type of attack involves IP spoofing, ICMP ECHO and a bounce site?

A.

IP spoofing attack

B.

Teardrop attack

C.

SYN attack

D.

Smurf attack

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Question # 62

What is the greatest danger from DHCP?

A.

An intruder on the network impersonating a DHCP server and thereby misconfiguring the DHCP clients.

B.

Having multiple clients on the same LAN having the same IP address.

C.

Having the wrong router used as the default gateway.

D.

Having the organization's mail server unreachable.

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Question # 63

Which one of the following statements about the advantages and disadvantages of network-based Intrusion detection systems is true

A.

Network-based IDSs are not vulnerable to attacks.

B.

Network-based IDSs are well suited for modern switch-based networks.

C.

Most network-based IDSs can automatically indicate whether or not an attack was successful.

D.

The deployment of network-based IDSs has little impact upon an existing network.

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Question # 64

The Information Technology Security Evaluation Criteria (ITSEC) was written to address which of the following that the Orange Book did not address?

A.

integrity and confidentiality.

B.

confidentiality and availability.

C.

integrity and availability.

D.

none of the above.

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Question # 65

Which property ensures that only the intended recipient can access the data and nobody else?

A.

Confidentiality

B.

Capability

C.

Integrity

D.

Availability

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Question # 66

What is malware that can spread itself over open network connections?

A.

Worm

B.

Rootkit

C.

Adware

D.

Logic Bomb

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Question # 67

Virus scanning and content inspection of SMIME encrypted e-mail without doing any further processing is:

A.

Not possible

B.

Only possible with key recovery scheme of all user keys

C.

It is possible only if X509 Version 3 certificates are used

D.

It is possible only by "brute force" decryption

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Question # 68

The high availability of multiple all-inclusive, easy-to-use hacking tools that do NOT require much technical knowledge has brought a growth in the number of which type of attackers?

A.

Black hats

B.

White hats

C.

Script kiddies

D.

Phreakers

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Question # 69

What do the ILOVEYOU and Melissa virus attacks have in common?

A.

They are both denial-of-service (DOS) attacks.

B.

They have nothing in common.

C.

They are both masquerading attacks.

D.

They are both social engineering attacks.

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Question # 70

What best describes a scenario when an employee has been shaving off pennies from multiple accounts and depositing the funds into his own bank account?

A.

Data fiddling

B.

Data diddling

C.

Salami techniques

D.

Trojan horses

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Question # 71

Crackers today are MOST often motivated by their desire to:

A.

Help the community in securing their networks.

B.

Seeing how far their skills will take them.

C.

Getting recognition for their actions.

D.

Gaining Money or Financial Gains.

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Question # 72

Which of the following computer crime is MORE often associated with INSIDERS?

A.

IP spoofing

B.

Password sniffing

C.

Data diddling

D.

Denial of service (DOS)

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Question # 73

Which virus category has the capability of changing its own code, making it harder to detect by anti-virus software?

A.

Stealth viruses

B.

Polymorphic viruses

C.

Trojan horses

D.

Logic bombs

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Question # 74

Which of the following technologies is a target of XSS or CSS (Cross-Site Scripting) attacks?

A.

Web Applications

B.

Intrusion Detection Systems

C.

Firewalls

D.

DNS Servers

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Question # 75

A DMZ is located:

A.

right behind your first Internet facing firewall

B.

right in front of your first Internet facing firewall

C.

right behind your first network active firewall

D.

right behind your first network passive Internet http firewall

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Question # 76

Which of the following questions are least likely to help in assessing controls covering audit trails?

A.

Does the audit trail provide a trace of user actions?

B.

Are incidents monitored and tracked until resolved?

C.

Is access to online logs strictly controlled?

D.

Is there separation of duties between security personnel who administer the access control function and those who administer the audit trail?

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Question # 77

A prolonged complete loss of electric power is a:

A.

brownout

B.

blackout

C.

surge

D.

fault

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Question # 78

Which one of the following is NOT one of the outcomes of a vulnerability assessment?

A.

Quantative loss assessment

B.

Qualitative loss assessment

C.

Formal approval of BCP scope and initiation document

D.

Defining critical support areas

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Question # 79

Which of the following best describes what would be expected at a "hot site"?

A.

Computers, climate control, cables and peripherals

B.

Computers and peripherals

C.

Computers and dedicated climate control systems.

D.

Dedicated climate control systems

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Question # 80

What is the essential difference between a self-audit and an independent audit?

A.

Tools used

B.

Results

C.

Objectivity

D.

Competence

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Question # 81

Attributes that characterize an attack are stored for reference using which of the following Intrusion Detection System (IDS) ?

A.

signature-based IDS

B.

statistical anomaly-based IDS

C.

event-based IDS

D.

inferent-based IDS

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Question # 82

Which of the following is an issue with signature-based intrusion detection systems?

A.

Only previously identified attack signatures are detected.

B.

Signature databases must be augmented with inferential elements.

C.

It runs only on the windows operating system

D.

Hackers can circumvent signature evaluations.

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Question # 83

In an online transaction processing system (OLTP), which of the following actions should be taken when erroneous or invalid transactions are detected?

A.

The transactions should be dropped from processing.

B.

The transactions should be processed after the program makes adjustments.

C.

The transactions should be written to a report and reviewed.

D.

The transactions should be corrected and reprocessed.

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Question # 84

In the process of gathering evidence from a computer attack, a system administrator took a series of actions which are listed below. Can you identify which one of these actions has compromised the whole evidence collection process?

A.

Using a write blocker

B.

Made a full-disk image

C.

Created a message digest for log files

D.

Displayed the contents of a folder

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Question # 85

Which of the following tools is less likely to be used by a hacker?

A.

l0phtcrack

B.

Tripwire

C.

OphCrack

D.

John the Ripper

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Question # 86

The session layer provides a logical persistent connection between peer hosts. Which of the following is one of the modes used in the session layer to establish this connection?

A.

Full duplex

B.

Synchronous

C.

Asynchronous

D.

Half simplex

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Question # 87

Several analysis methods can be employed by an IDS, each with its own strengths and weaknesses, and their applicability to any given situation should be carefully considered. There are two basic IDS analysis methods that exists. Which of the basic method is more prone to false positive?

A.

Pattern Matching (also called signature analysis)

B.

Anomaly Detection

C.

Host-based intrusion detection

D.

Network-based intrusion detection

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Question # 88

Which of the following monitors network traffic in real time?

A.

network-based IDS

B.

host-based IDS

C.

application-based IDS

D.

firewall-based IDS

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Question # 89

What setup should an administrator use for regularly testing the strength of user passwords?

A.

A networked workstation so that the live password database can easily be accessed by the cracking program.

B.

A networked workstation so the password database can easily be copied locally and processed by the cracking program.

C.

A standalone workstation on which the password database is copied and processed by the cracking program.

D.

A password-cracking program is unethical; therefore it should not be used.

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Question # 90

Which of the following would assist the most in Host Based intrusion detection?

A.

audit trails.

B.

access control lists.

C.

security clearances

D.

host-based authentication

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Question # 91

Which of the following is the BEST way to detect software license violations?

A.

Implementing a corporate policy on copyright infringements and software use.

B.

Requiring that all PCs be diskless workstations.

C.

Installing metering software on the LAN so applications can be accessed through the metered software.

D.

Regularly scanning PCs in use to ensure that unauthorized copies of software have not been loaded on the PC.

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Question # 92

Which of the following usually provides reliable, real-time information without consuming network or host resources?

A.

network-based IDS

B.

host-based IDS

C.

application-based IDS

D.

firewall-based IDS

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Question # 93

Who should measure the effectiveness of Information System security related controls in an organization?

A.

The local security specialist

B.

The business manager

C.

The systems auditor

D.

The central security manager

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Question # 94

Controls provide accountability for individuals who are accessing sensitive information. This accountability is accomplished:

A.

through access control mechanisms that require identification and authentication and through the audit function.

B.

through logical or technical controls involving the restriction of access to systems and the protection of information.

C.

through logical or technical controls but not involving the restriction of access to systems and the protection of information.

D.

through access control mechanisms that do not require identification and authentication and do not operate through the audit function.

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Question # 95

Which of the following ciphers is a subset on which the Vigenere polyalphabetic cipher was based on?

A.

Caesar

B.

The Jefferson disks

C.

Enigma

D.

SIGABA

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Question # 96

Which of the following is NOT a symmetric key algorithm?

A.

Blowfish

B.

Digital Signature Standard (DSS)

C.

Triple DES (3DES)

D.

RC5

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Question # 97

Which of the following elements is NOT included in a Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)?

A.

Timestamping

B.

Repository

C.

Certificate revocation

D.

Internet Key Exchange (IKE)

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Question # 98

Which of the following is a cryptographic protocol and infrastructure developed to send encrypted credit card numbers over the Internet?

A.

Secure Electronic Transaction (SET)

B.

MONDEX

C.

Secure Shell (SSH-2)

D.

Secure Hypertext Transfer Protocol (S-HTTP)

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Question # 99

Which of the following statements pertaining to message digests is incorrect?

A.

The original file cannot be created from the message digest.

B.

Two different files should not have the same message digest.

C.

The message digest should be calculated using at least 128 bytes of the file.

D.

Messages digests are usually of fixed size.

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Question # 100

Which of the following services is NOT provided by the digital signature standard (DSS)?

A.

Encryption

B.

Integrity

C.

Digital signature

D.

Authentication

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Question # 101

What is the maximum allowable key size of the Rijndael encryption algorithm?

A.

128 bits

B.

192 bits

C.

256 bits

D.

512 bits

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Question # 102

What algorithm was DES derived from?

A.

Twofish.

B.

Skipjack.

C.

Brooks-Aldeman.

D.

Lucifer.

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Question # 103

What key size is used by the Clipper Chip?

A.

40 bits

B.

56 bits

C.

64 bits

D.

80 bits

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Question # 104

Brute force attacks against encryption keys have increased in potency because of increased computing power. Which of the following is often considered a good protection against the brute force cryptography attack?

A.

The use of good key generators.

B.

The use of session keys.

C.

Nothing can defend you against a brute force crypto key attack.

D.

Algorithms that are immune to brute force key attacks.

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Question # 105

What can be defined as an instance of two different keys generating the same ciphertext from the same plaintext?

A.

Key collision

B.

Key clustering

C.

Hashing

D.

Ciphertext collision

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Question # 106

The Diffie-Hellman algorithm is used for:

A.

Encryption

B.

Digital signature

C.

Key agreement

D.

Non-repudiation

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Question # 107

You work in a police department forensics lab where you examine computers for evidence of crimes. Your work is vital to the success of the prosecution of criminals.

One day you receive a laptop and are part of a two man team responsible for examining it together. However, it is lunch time and after receiving the laptop you leave it on your desk and you both head out to lunch.

What critical step in forensic evidence have you forgotten?

A.

Chain of custody

B.

Locking the laptop in your desk

C.

Making a disk image for examination

D.

Cracking the admin password with chntpw

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Question # 108

In a SSL session between a client and a server, who is responsible for generating the master secret that will be used as a seed to generate the symmetric keys that will be used during the session?

A.

Both client and server

B.

The client's browser

C.

The web server

D.

The merchant's Certificate Server

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Question # 109

Which of the following is NOT a true statement regarding the implementaton of the 3DES modes?

A.

DES-EEE1 uses one key

B.

DES-EEE2 uses two keys

C.

DES-EEE3 uses three keys

D.

DES-EDE2 uses two keys

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Question # 110

Which of the following ASYMMETRIC encryption algorithms is based on the difficulty of FACTORING LARGE NUMBERS?

A.

El Gamal

B.

Elliptic Curve Cryptosystems (ECCs)

C.

RSA

D.

International Data Encryption Algorithm (IDEA)

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Question # 111

What can be defined as secret communications where the very existence of the message is hidden?

A.

Clustering

B.

Steganography

C.

Cryptology

D.

Vernam cipher

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Question # 112

Which of the following statements pertaining to stream ciphers is correct?

A.

A stream cipher is a type of asymmetric encryption algorithm.

B.

A stream cipher generates what is called a keystream.

C.

A stream cipher is slower than a block cipher.

D.

A stream cipher is not appropriate for hardware-based encryption.

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Question # 113

What does the (star) integrity axiom mean in the Biba model?

A.

No read up

B.

No write down

C.

No read down

D.

No write up

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Question # 114

What security model is dependent on security labels?

A.

Discretionary access control

B.

Label-based access control

C.

Mandatory access control

D.

Non-discretionary access control

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Question # 115

Which access control model is best suited in an environment where a high security level is required and where it is desired that only the administrator grants access control?

A.

DAC

B.

MAC

C.

Access control matrix

D.

TACACS

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Question # 116

Rule-Based Access Control (RuBAC) access is determined by rules. Such rules would fit within what category of access control ?

A.

Discretionary Access Control (DAC)

B.

Mandatory Access control (MAC)

C.

Non-Discretionary Access Control (NDAC)

D.

Lattice-based Access control

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Question # 117

Which integrity model defines a constrained data item, an integrity verification procedure and a transformation procedure?

A.

The Take-Grant model

B.

The Biba integrity model

C.

The Clark Wilson integrity model

D.

The Bell-LaPadula integrity model

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Question # 118

Which of the following security models does NOT concern itself with the flow of data?

A.

The information flow model

B.

The Biba model

C.

The Bell-LaPadula model

D.

The noninterference model

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Question # 119

In the context of Biometric authentication, what is a quick way to compare the accuracy of devices. In general, the device that have the lowest value would be the most accurate. Which of the following would be used to compare accuracy of devices?

A.

the CER is used.

B.

the FRR is used

C.

the FAR is used

D.

the FER is used

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Question # 120

In the context of access control, locks, gates, guards are examples of which of the following?

A.

Administrative controls

B.

Technical controls

C.

Physical controls

D.

Logical controls

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Question # 121

What is called the percentage at which the False Rejection Rate equals the False Acceptance Rate?

A.

False Rejection Rate (FRR) or Type I Error

B.

False Acceptance Rate (FAR) or Type II Error

C.

Crossover Error Rate (CER)

D.

Failure to enroll rate (FTE or FER)

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Question # 122

How would nonrepudiation be best classified as?

A.

A preventive control

B.

A logical control

C.

A corrective control

D.

A compensating control

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Question # 123

Which of the following statements pertaining to RADIUS is incorrect:

A.

A RADIUS server can act as a proxy server, forwarding client requests to other authentication domains.

B.

Most of RADIUS clients have a capability to query secondary RADIUS servers for redundancy.

C.

Most RADIUS servers have built-in database connectivity for billing and reporting purposes.

D.

Most RADIUS servers can work with DIAMETER servers.

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Question # 124

Which of the following biometric characteristics cannot be used to uniquely authenticate an individual's identity?

A.

Retina scans

B.

Iris scans

C.

Palm scans

D.

Skin scans

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Question # 125

Which of the following questions is less likely to help in assessing identification and authentication controls?

A.

Is a current list maintained and approved of authorized users and their access?

B.

Are passwords changed at least every ninety days or earlier if needed?

C.

Are inactive user identifications disabled after a specified period of time?

D.

Is there a process for reporting incidents?

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Question # 126

Which type of password provides maximum security because a new password is required for each new log-on?

A.

One-time or dynamic password

B.

Congnitive password

C.

Static password

D.

Passphrase

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Question # 127

Which type of control is concerned with avoiding occurrences of risks?

A.

Deterrent controls

B.

Detective controls

C.

Preventive controls

D.

Compensating controls

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Question # 128

What is the main objective of proper separation of duties?

A.

To prevent employees from disclosing sensitive information.

B.

To ensure access controls are in place.

C.

To ensure that no single individual can compromise a system.

D.

To ensure that audit trails are not tampered with.

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Question # 129

Another type of access control is lattice-based access control. In this type of control a lattice model is applied. How is this type of access control concept applied?

A.

The pair of elements is the subject and object, and the subject has an upper bound equal or higher than the upper bound of the object being accessed.

B.

The pair of elements is the subject and object, and the subject has an upper bound lower then the upper bound of the object being accessed.

C.

The pair of elements is the subject and object, and the subject has no special upper or lower bound needed within the lattice.

D.

The pair of elements is the subject and object, and the subject has no access rights in relation to an object.

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Question # 130

When submitting a passphrase for authentication, the passphrase is converted into ...

A.

a virtual password by the system

B.

a new passphrase by the system

C.

a new passphrase by the encryption technology

D.

a real password by the system which can be used forever

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Question # 131

In non-discretionary access control using Role Based Access Control (RBAC), a central authority determines what subjects can have access to certain objects based on the organizational security policy. The access controls may be based on:

A.

The societies role in the organization

B.

The individual's role in the organization

C.

The group-dynamics as they relate to the individual's role in the organization

D.

The group-dynamics as they relate to the master-slave role in the organization

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Question # 132

Which of the following statements pertaining to the Bell-LaPadula is TRUE if you are NOT making use of the strong star property?

A.

It allows "read up."

B.

It addresses covert channels.

C.

It addresses management of access controls.

D.

It allows "write up."

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Question # 133

This baseline sets certain thresholds for specific errors or mistakes allowed and the amount of these occurrences that can take place before it is considered suspicious?

A.

Checkpoint level

B.

Ceiling level

C.

Clipping level

D.

Threshold level

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Question # 134

Which of the following protects a password from eavesdroppers and supports the encryption of communication?

A.

Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)

B.

Challenge Handshake Identification Protocol (CHIP)

C.

Challenge Handshake Encryption Protocol (CHEP)

D.

Challenge Handshake Substitution Protocol (CHSP)

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Question # 135

Which of the following access control models requires defining classification for objects?

A.

Role-based access control

B.

Discretionary access control

C.

Identity-based access control

D.

Mandatory access control

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Question # 136

Which of the following ports does NOT normally need to be open for a mail server to operate?

A.

Port 110

B.

Port 25

C.

Port 119

D.

Port 143

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Question # 137

What can be defined as the maximum acceptable length of time that elapses before the unavailability of the system severely affects the organization?

A.

Recovery Point Objectives (RPO)

B.

Recovery Time Objectives (RTO)

C.

Recovery Time Period (RTP)

D.

Critical Recovery Time (CRT)

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Question # 138

Which backup method usually resets the archive bit on the files after they have been backed up?

A.

Incremental backup method.

B.

Differential backup method.

C.

Partial backup method.

D.

Tape backup method.

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Question # 139

To understand the 'whys' in crime, many times it is necessary to understand MOM. Which of the following is not a component of MOM?

A.

Opportunities

B.

Methods

C.

Motivation

D.

Means

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Question # 140

Which of the following is a CHARACTERISTIC of a decision support system (DSS) in regards to Threats and Risks Analysis?

A.

DSS is aimed at solving highly structured problems.

B.

DSS emphasizes flexibility in the decision making approach of users.

C.

DSS supports only structured decision-making tasks.

D.

DSS combines the use of models with non-traditional data access and retrieval functions.

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Question # 141

Which of the following statements pertaining to a security policy is incorrect?

A.

Its main purpose is to inform the users, administrators and managers of their obligatory requirements for protecting technology and information assets.

B.

It specifies how hardware and software should be used throughout the organization.

C.

It needs to have the acceptance and support of all levels of employees within the organization in order for it to be appropriate and effective.

D.

It must be flexible to the changing environment.

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Question # 142

An Architecture where there are more than two execution domains or privilege levels is called:

A.

Ring Architecture.

B.

Ring Layering

C.

Network Environment.

D.

Security Models

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Question # 143

What can be defined as: It confirms that users’ needs have been met by the supplied solution ?

A.

Accreditation

B.

Certification

C.

Assurance

D.

Acceptance

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Question # 144

What is the goal of the Maintenance phase in a common development process of a security policy?

A.

to review the document on the specified review date

B.

publication within the organization

C.

to write a proposal to management that states the objectives of the policy

D.

to present the document to an approving body

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Question # 145

Buffer overflow and boundary condition errors are subsets of which of the following?

A.

Race condition errors.

B.

Access validation errors.

C.

Exceptional condition handling errors.

D.

Input validation errors.

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Question # 146

Which of the following was designed to support multiple network types over the same serial link?

A.

Ethernet

B.

SLIP

C.

PPP

D.

PPTP

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Question # 147

Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) interrogates the network by sending out a?

A.

broadcast.

B.

multicast.

C.

unicast.

D.

semicast.

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Question # 148

Which of the following category of UTP cables is specified to be able to handle gigabit Ethernet (1 Gbps) according to the EIA/TIA-568-B standards?

A.

Category 5e UTP

B.

Category 2 UTP

C.

Category 3 UTP

D.

Category 1e UTP

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Question # 149

Java is not:

A.

Object-oriented.

B.

Distributed.

C.

Architecture Specific.

D.

Multithreaded.

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Question # 150

In computing what is the name of a non-self-replicating type of malware program containing malicious code that appears to have some useful purpose but also contains code that has a malicious or harmful purpose imbedded in it, when executed, carries out actions that are unknown to the person installing it, typically causing loss or theft of data, and possible system harm.

A.

virus

B.

worm

C.

Trojan horse.

D.

trapdoor

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