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CTFL_Syll_4.0 Questions and Answers

Question # 6

Which of the following answers describes a reason for adopting experience-based testing techniques?

A.

Experience-based test techniques provide more systematic coverage criteria than black-box and white-box test techniques

B.

Experience-based test techniques completely rely on the tester's past experience for designing test cases

C.

Experience-based test techniques allow designing test cases that are usually easier to reproduce than those designed with black-box and white-box test techniques

D.

Experience-based test techniques tend to find defects that may be difficult to find with black-box and white-box test techniques and are often useful to complement these more systematic techniques

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Question # 7

Which of the following statements about exploratory testing is true?

A.

Exploratory testing is an experience-based test technique in which testers explore the requirements specification to detect non testable requirements

B.

When exploratory testing is conducted following a session-based approach, the issues detected by the testers can be documented in session sheets

C.

Exploratory testing is an experience-based test technique used by testers during informal code reviews to find defects by exploring the source code

D.

In exploratory testing, testers usually produce scripted tests and establish bidirectional traceability between these tests and the items of the test basis

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Question # 8

Which ONE of the following options MOST ACCURATELY describesbranch testing?

A.

In branch testing, the coverage items are executable statements. The aim is to design test cases that exercise statements in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved, expressed as a percentage.

B.

In branch testing, the coverage items are control flow transfers between decisions, and the aim is to design test cases to exercise flow transfers in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved. Coverage is measured as the number of branches exercised by the test cases divided by the total number of branches expressed as a percentage.

C.

In branch testing, the coverage items are branches, and the aim is to design test cases to exercise branches in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved. Coverage is measured as thenumber of branches exercised by the test cases divided by the total number of branches expressed as a percentage.

D.

In branch testing, the coverage items are executable decisions. The aim is to design test cases that exercise statements in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved. Coverage is expressed as a percentage.

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Question # 9

Consider an estimation session where a six-member Agile team (Memb1, ... , Memb6) is performing a planning poker session to estimate a user story (in story points). Team

members are using a set of cards with the following values: 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 21. Below is the outcome produced by the first round of estimation for this session:

Which of the following answers best describes how the estimation session should proceed?

A.

The final estimate of the user story in story points is determined as the arithmetic mean of all the estimates made by the team members during this first round, without the need to perform further rounds of estimation

B.

The final estimation of the user story in story points is determined as the most frequent estimate value among those selected by the team members (in this case 3 story points chosen by Memb1, Memb2, Memb3, Memb5) during this first round, without the need to perform further rounds of estimation

C.

The final estimate of the user story in story points is determined as the arithmetic mean of the most optimistic estimate (chosen by Memb6) and the most pessimistic estimate (chosen by Memb4) during this first round, without the need to perform further rounds of estimation

D.

Memb4 and Memb6, which have produced the most pessimistic and the most optimistic estimates respectively, should explain the reasons of their choices to stimulate a discussion between all team members before to proceed to another round of estimation

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Question # 10

Which of the following is not an example of a typical generic skill required for testing?

A.

Be able to apply test-driven development

B.

Be able to use test management tools and defect tracking tools

C.

Be able to communicate defects and failures to developers as objectively as possible

D.

Possess the necessary social skills that support effective teamwork

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Question # 11

Which of the following statements about traceability is false?

A.

Traceability between test basis items and thetest casesdesigned tocover them,makes it possible to determine which test basis items have been covered by the executedtest cases

B.

Traceability between test basis items and thetest casesdesigned tocover them,enablesexperience-based test techniques to be applied

C.

Traceability between test basis items and thetest casesdesigned tocover them,enablesidentification of which test cases will be affected by changes to the test basisitems

D.

Traceability can be established and maintained throughall test documentation for a giventest level, such as from test conditions through test cases to test scripts

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Question # 12

Which of the following statements about the typical activities of a formal review process is true?

A.

Individual review is only mandatory when the size of the work product under review is too large to cover at the review meeting

B.

Various review techniques that may be applied by participants during individual review are described in the ISO/IEC/IEEE 29119-3 standard

C.

Choosing which standards to follow during the review process is usually made during review planning

D.

One of the main goals of the review meeting is to make sure that all participants are aware of their roles and responsibilities in the review process

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Question # 13

Which of the following is a role that is usually responsible for documenting the findings (e.g., action items, decisions, recommendations) made by the review team as part of a typical formal review?

A.

Review leader

B.

Facilitator

C.

Recorder

D.

Moderator

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Question # 14

Which ONE of the following options BEST describes Behavior-Driven Development (BDD)?

A.

Expresses the desired behavior of an application with test cases written in a simple form of natural language that is easy to understand by stakeholders—usually using the Given/When/Then format. Test cases are then automatically translated into executable tests.

B.

Defines test cases at a low level, close to the implementation, using unit test frameworks.

C.

Is primarily focused on non-functional testing techniques to ensure system reliability and performance.

D.

Requires testing to be performed after development is completed to validate software functionality.

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Question # 15

Test automation allows you to:

A.

demonstrate the absence of defects

B.

produce tests that are less subject to human errors

C.

avoid performing exploratory testing

D.

increase test process efficiency by facilitating management of defects

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Question # 16

An e-commerce site accepts credit cards for processing the payment. The payment processing form has a field for the amount of money to be deducted. The minimum amount of money that can be processed is $10. The credit cards have a limit of $5,000 (Five Thousand). Assume that only integers can be accepted as inputs. Which of the following set of boundary values you will choose for EFFICIENT testing for the amount of money that can be spent?

A.

9,5001

B.

10,5000

C.

9,10,11,4999,5000,5001

D.

9,10,5000,5001

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Question # 17

Pariksha labs is a mature software testing company. They are TMMi level 5 certified. Their testing processes are well defined. Which ONE of the following statements is likely to be CORRECT about them?

A.

The company uses same test strategy for all the projects doing minor changes based on test manager responsible for the project because their test strategy template is very mature and do not need to change

B.

The question about the test design techniques to be used is determined based on various factors such as the domain and expectations of the stakeholders

C.

Same set of testing processes are used by them without needing any tweaks because that is the hallmark of a mature testing company.

D.

They try to perform 100% automation for every project because automation is a must for efficiency

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Question # 18

Use Scenario 1 “Happy Tomatoes” (from the previous question).

Using theBoundary Value Analysis (BVA)technique (in its two-point variant), identify the set of input values that provides the HIGHEST coverage.

A.

{7,8,21,22,29,30}

B.

{7,8,22,23,29,30}

C.

{6,7,8,21,22,29,31}

D.

{6,7,21,22,29,30}

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Question # 19

Which of the following statements about white-box testing is false?

A.

Static testing can benefit from using code-related white-box test techniques during code reviews

B.

White-box testing allows suggesting test cases for increasing coverage levels which are based on objective measures

C.

Achieving full code coverage for a component or a system ensures that it has been fully tested

D.

Black-box testing can benefit from using code-related white-box test techniques to increase confidence in the code

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Question # 20

A program is used to control a manufacturing line (turn machines on and off. start and stop conveyer belts, add raw materials to the flow. etc.). Not all actions are possible at all times. For example, there are certain manufacturing stages that cannot be stopped - unless there is an emergency. A tester attempts to evaluate if all such cases (where a specific action is not allowed) are covered by the tests.

Which coverage metric will provide the needed information for this analysis?

A.

Code coverage

B.

Data flow coverage

C.

Statement coverage

D.

Branch Coverage

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Question # 21

Your organization's test strategy states that it is desirable to usemore than one method for estimating test effort. You are responsible for estimating test effort for the next project. Based on historical data, thedevelopment-to-test effort ratiois5:3.

The initial estimate for thedevelopment effort is 450 person-days.

Which ONE of the following options corresponds to the estimatedtest effortusing the ratio-based method?

A.

750 person-days

B.

180 person-days

C.

720 person-days

D.

270 person-days

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Question # 22

The acceptance criteria associated with a user story:

A.

are often written in a rule-oriented format using the template referred to as "Given/When/Then"

B.

are often documented following in rule-oriented format using the following template: "As a [role], I want [feature], so that I can [benefit]"

C.

can be written in different formats and represent an aspect of a user story referred to as confirmation' of the so called "3 C's"

D.

must be written in one of the two following formats: scenario-oriented or rule-oriented

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Question # 23

Which of the following is NOT a typical debugging activity when a failure is triggered by dynamic testing?

A.

Reproducing the failure

B.

Adding new test cases

C.

Fixing the cause

D.

Diagnosing the root cause

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Question # 24

You are working on creating test cases for a user story -

As a customer, I want to be able to book an ISTQB exam for a particular date, so that I can find choose my time slot and pay the correct amount, including discounts, if any.

The acceptance criteria for this :

1.The dates shown should be from the current date to 2 years in future

2.Initially there should be 10 timeslots available for each day, 1 hour each, starting at 8 AM GMT

3.Maximum 5 persons should be able to select a time slot after which that time slot should become unavailable

4.First timeslot should have a 10% discount.

Which of the following is the BEST example of a test case for this user story?

A.

Logon to the site and book an exam for the 8 AM (GMT) timeslot. Expected result: You should get 10% discounted price. Change the time to any other timeslot. Expected result: Discount should be removed

B.

Logon to the site. Book 5 exams for the current date. Expected result: Exams should be booked. Book 6th timeslot for the same date. Expected result: The exam should be booked but no discount should be given.

C.

Logon to the site. Expected result: Default 8 AM (GMT) timeslot should be selected. Change the time to any other timeslot. Expected result: New slot should be booked

D.

Logon to the site. Book an exam for the current date. Expected result: timeslots should be shown. Change the time to any other date prior to the selected date. Expected result: New slot should become visible.

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Question # 25

An organization is working on updating test cases for a particular module of their software.

Sam updated a set of test cases yesterday and saved the new version on his PC.

Unfortunately, the hard disk of his PC crashed, and his work was lost.

The IT department of the organization restored the contents of his hard disk with the last available back-up - from the previous morning. However, the changes made by him yesterday were lost forever.

Which of the following tools, had it been used, would have prevented the loss of Sam's updates?

A.

Configuration Management Tool

B.

Incident Management Tool

C.

Backup tool

D.

Test Execution tool

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Question # 26

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

A.

Testing the software under test (SUT) based on the design is black-box testing whereas testing the input-output behaviour is experience based testing.

B.

Testing the software under test (SUT) is possible only after implementation in white-box testing whereas testing the software even before implementation is possible in exploratory testing.

C.

Testing the software under test (SUT) using knowledge of the tester is experience based testing whereas testing the specification based behaviour without pre-written test cases is using black-box testing techniques.

D.

Testing based on the structure of the software under test (SUT) is white-box testing whereas testing the input-output behaviour without pre-written test cases is experience based testing.

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Question # 27

Following a risk-based testing approach you have designed 10 tests to cover a product risk with a high-risk level. You want to estimate, adopting the three-point test estimation technique, the test effort required to reduce the risk level to zero by executing those 10 tests. You made the following three initial estimates:

• most optimistic = 6 person hours

• most likely = 30 person hours

• most pessimistic = 54 person hours

Based only on the given information, which of the following answers about the three-point test estimation technique applied to this problem is true?

A.

The final estimate is between 22 person hours and 38 person hours

B.

The final estimate is exactly 30 person hours because the technique uses the initial most likely estimate as the final estimate

C.

The final estimate is between 6 person hours and 54 person hours

D.

The final estimate is exactly 30 person hours because the technique uses the arithmetic mean of the three initial estimates as the final estimate

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Question # 28

A test manager has started a cycle of testing for an e-commerce application. The reason for testing is the change in the protocol for connecting to the payment gateway because of new regulations. Which of the following correctly names this type of testing?

A.

Retirement testing

B.

System integration testing

C.

Beta testing

D.

Maintenance testing

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Question # 29

Which of the following statements is CORRECT about the value added by a tester to release planning?

A.

The tester estimates the testing effort for individual iterations

B.

The tester assesses the testability of the user stories

C.

The tester breaks down user stories into smaller testing tasks

D.

The tester writes acceptance criteria

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Question # 30

Which ONE of the following options is NOT a test objective?

A.

Verifying whether specified requirements have been fulfilled

B.

Triggering failures and finding defects

C.

Finding errors

D.

Validating whether the test object is complete and works as expected by the stakeholders

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Question # 31

Which of the following statements best describes how configuration management supports testing?

A.

Configuration management helps reduce testing effort by identifying a manageable number of test environment configurations in which to test the software, out of all possible configurations of the environment in which the software will be released

B.

Configuration management is an administrative discipline that includes change control, which is the process of controlling the changes to identified items referred to as Configuration Items'

C.

Configuration management is an approach to interoperability testing where tests are executed in the cloud, as the cloud can provide cost-effective access to multiple configurations of the test environments

D.

Configuration management helps ensure that all relevant project documentation and software items are uniquely identified in all their versions and therefore can be unambiguously referenced in test documentation

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Question # 32

Which of the following is an example of scenario-oriented acceptance criteria?

A.

Verify that a registered user can create add a new project with name having more than 100 characters

B.

An unregistered user shouldn't be shown any report.

C.

The user should be able to provide three inputs to test the product - the Al model to be tested, the data used and an optional text file

D.

A user is already logged in then on navigating to the Al model testing page the user should be directly shown the report of last test run.

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Question # 33

The following rules determine the annual bonus to be paid to a salesman of a company based on the total annual amount of the sales made (referred to as TAS).

If the TAS is between 50k€ and 80k€, the bonus is 10%. If the TAS exceeds 80k€ by a value not greater than 40k€, the bonus is 15%. Finally, if the TAS

exceeds the maximum threshold which entitles to a 15% bonus, the bonus is 22%.

Consider applying equivalence partitioning to the TAS (Note: 1k€ = 1000 euros).

Which one of the following answers contain only test cases that belong to the same equivalence partition?

A.

TC1 = 81 k€; TC2= 97k€; TC3=111k€; TC4=118k€

B.

TC1 = 40k€; TC2= 46k€; TC3=51k€; TC4=53k€

C.

TC1 = 79k€; TC2= 80k€; TC3=81k€; TC4=82k€

D.

TC1 = 90k€; TC2= 110k€; TC3=125k€: TC4=140k€

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Question # 34

In a two-hour uninterrupted test session, performed as part of an iteration on an Agile project, a heuristic checklist was used to help the tester focus on some specific usability issues of a web application.

The unscripted tests produced by the tester's experience during such session belong to which one of the following testing quadrants?

A.

Q1

B.

Q2

C.

Q3

D.

Q4

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Question # 35

In branch testing, what is the significance of a conditional branch in a software program?

A.

It marks a point where the program’s execution will terminate bringing the program to a halt.

B.

It indicates a decision point where the program can follow different paths based on specific conditions.

C.

It represents a programming error and therefore a conditional branch should be avoided.

D.

It signifies a comment or documentation within the code and it doesn't indicate a defect.

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Question # 36

During component testing of a program if 100% decision coverage is achieved, which of the following coverage criteria is also guaranteed to be 100%?

A.

100% Stale transition coverage

B.

100% Equivalence class coverage

C.

100% Boundary value coverage

D.

100% Statement coverage

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Question # 37

Which of the following statements refers to good testing practice to be applied regardless of the chosen software development model?

A.

Tests should be written in executable format before the code is written and should act as executable specifications that drive coding

B.

Test levels should be defined such that the exit criteria of one level are part of the entry criteria for the next level

C.

Test objectives should be the same for all test levels, although the number of tests designed at various levels can vary significantly

D.

Involvement of testers in work product reviews should occur as early as possible to take advantage of the early testing principle

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Question # 38

As a result of the joint evaluation of a product version with the customer, it has been concluded that it would be appropriate to retrieve an earlier version of the product and carry out a benchmark. Depending on the result, further development will be carried out based on the current version or the retrieved version.

Which mechanism, process, and/or technique will allow the specific version (including the testing work products) of a given software product to be restored?

A.

Defect management

B.

Configuration management

C.

Change management

D.

Risk management

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Question # 39

Which of the following is a typical potential risk of using test automation tools?

A.

Reduced feedback times regarding software quality compared to manual testing

B.

Reduced test execution times compared to manual testing

C.

Reduced repeatability and consistency of tests compared to manual testing

D.

Underestimation of effort required to maintain test scripts

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Question # 40

Which ONE of the following options identifies the perspectives through which acollective authorship processgenerates a shared vision of user stories?

A.

Product owner, development, and testing

B.

Business, architecture, and testing

C.

Business, development, and testing

D.

Business, development, and acceptance testing

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Question # 41

A company wants to reward each of its salespeople with an annual bonus that represents the sum of all the bonuses accumulated for every single sale made by that salesperson. The bonus for a single sale can take on the following four values: 3%, 5%, 7% and 10% (the percentage refers to the amount of the single sale). These values are determined on the basis of the type of customer (classified as "Basic" or "Premium") to which such sale was made, and on the amount of such sale classified into the following three groups G1, G2 and G3:

• [G1]: less than 300 euros

• [G2]: between 300 and 2000 euros

• [G3]: greater than 2000 euros

Which of the following is the minimum number of test cases needed to cover the full decision table associated with this scenario?

A.

12

B.

6

C.

4

D.

3

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Question # 42

Which of the following statements about the test pyramid is true?

A.

Each layer of the test pyramid groups tests related to a single non-functional quality characteristic

B.

The higher the layer of the test pyramid, the more production code a single automated test within the layer tends tocover

C.

The higher the layer of the test pyramid, the more maintainable a single automated test within the layer tends to be

D.

The higher the layer of the test pyramid, the more isolated a single automated test within the layer tends to be

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Question # 43

A calculator software is used to calculate the result for 5+6.

The user noticed that the result given is 6.

This is an example of;

A.

Mistake

B.

Fault

C.

Error

D.

Failure

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Question # 44

An alphanumeric password must be between 4 and 7 characters long and must contain at least one numeric character, one capital (uppercase) letter and one lowercase letter of the alphabet.

Which one of the following sets of test cases represents the correct outcome of a two-value boundary value analysis applied to the password length? (Note: test cases are separated by a semicolon)

A.

1xA;aB11;Pq1ZZab;7iDD0a1x

B.

aB11;99rSp:5NnN10;7iDD0a1x

C.

1xB: aB11: 99rSp: 5NnN10; 4NnN10T; 44ghWn19

D.

1RhT;rSp53;3N3e10;8sBdby

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Question # 45

A typical objective of testing is to ensure that:

A.

testing is used to drive the development of a software

B.

a software has been tested using a combination of test techniques

C.

there are no defects in a software that is about to be released

D.

a software has been properly covered

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Question # 46

Which of the following statements is true?

A.

A defect does not always produce a failure, while a bug always produces a failure

B.

A defect may cause a failure which, when occurring, always causes an error

C.

Failures can be caused by defects, but also by environmental conditions

D.

Bugs are defects found during component testing, while failures are defects found at higher test levels

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Question # 47

Which ONE of the following options isNOTa benefit oftest automation?

A.

Reduced test execution times

B.

More objective assessment

C.

Prevention of simple human errors

D.

Eliminating completely the need for manual testing

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Question # 48

A software company decides to invest in reviews of various types. The thought process they have is that each artifact needs to be reviewed using only one of the review methods depending on the criticality of the artifact.

A.

The thought process is incorrect. The whole company should adopt same standard for review of all artifacts.

B.

The thought process is correct. The whole company should decide or the review method based on their CMM level.

C.

The thought process is incorrect. Same artifact can be reviewed using different review methods

D.

The thought process is correct. It wastes time to review same artifact using efferent review methods

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Question # 49

Which ONE of the following elements is TYPICALLY part of atest plan?

A.

The budget and schedule for the test project.

B.

A detailed analysis of the defects found and their causes.

C.

A detailed report on the test results after the test project is completed.

D.

A list of test logs from the test execution.

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Question # 50

Consider the following defect report for an Exam Booking System

Defect ID: ST1041 | Title: Unable to cancel an exam booking | Severity: Very High | Priority: Very High | Environment: Windows 10, Firefox

Description: When attempting to cancel an exam booking using the cancel exam feature, the system does not cancel the exam even though it shows a message that the exam has been cancelled.

Which ONE of the following indicates the information that should be added to the description for reproducing the defect easily?

A.

Repeating the test case with different browsers and logging a separate defect for each one of them

B.

Providing exact steps that lead to this defect. It is not clear from the description if this is a problem for any scheduled exam or for a specific user.

C.

Providing better severity and priority. It is not clear why this is a high severity problem as the exams can be booked without any problem.

D.

The defect Id used is alphanumeric in nature. It should be a number only.

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Question # 51

Which of the following is a good testing practice which is applicable INDEPENDENT of the software development lifecycle followed?

A.

Not all development activities should have corresponding test activities

B.

Each test level should have an appropriate test objective

C.

Reviews should be done after the work products have been finalized

D.

Large amount of redundancy between test levels is good because it prevents bug leakage

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Question # 52

Consider the following user story about an e-commerce website's registration feature that only allows registered users to make purchases:

“As a new user, I want to register to the website, so that I can start shopping online”

The following are some of the acceptance criteria defined for the user story:

[a]The registration form consists of the following fields: username, email address, first name, last name, date of birth, password and repeat password

[b]To submit the registration request, the new user must fill in all the fields of the registration form with valid values and must agree to the terms and conditions

[c]To be valid, the email address must not be provided by free online mail services that allow to create disposable email addresses. A dedicated error message must be presented to inform the new user when an invalid address is entered

[d]To be valid, the first name and last name must contain only alphabetic characters and must be between 2 and 80 characters long. A dedicated error message must be presented to inform the new user when an invalid first name and/or the last name is entered

[e]After submitting the registration request, the new user must receive an e-mail containing the confirmation link to the e-mail address specified in the registration form

Based only on the given information, which of the following ATDD tests is most likely to be written first?

A.

The new user enters valid values in the fields of the registration form, except for the email address, where he/she enters an e-mail address provided by a free online mail service that allow to create disposable email addresses. Then he/she is informed by the website about this issue

B.

The new user enters valid values in the fields of the registration form, except for the first name, where he/she enters a first name with 10 characters that contains a number. Then he/she is informed by the website about this issue

C.

The user accesses the website with username and password, and successfully places a purchase order for five items, paying by Mastercard credit card EV

D.

The new user enters valid values in all the fields of the registration form, confirms to accept all the terms and conditions, submits the registration request and then receives an e-mail containing the confirmation link to the e-mail address specified in the registration form

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Question # 53

Scenario 1 “Happy Tomatoes” (used for questions 20-22):

An intelligent application for agricultural use incorporates temperature sensors located at different points of an enclosure. The sensors measure and record the temperature at regular intervals and extract the statistical values for these measurements. These values include the average daily temperature.

A new variety of tomatoes is currently being grown and the“World Organization for Happy Tomatoes”has established temperature ranges related to vegetative development.

When the system establishes that the average temperature is within a specific range, it emits a value that will be used to monitor and control the crop.

Using theequivalence partitioningtechnique, identify the set of input values that provides the HIGHEST coverage.

A.

{7,10,21,40}

B.

{8,10,25,40}

C.

{7,10,25,29}

D.

{7,10,25,40}

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Question # 54

Which of the following statements about checklist-based testing is true?

A.

Checklist-based testing is a technique for managing the review meeting that can be applied in those reviews where the use of checklists is mandatory, as is often the case in formal reviews

B.

Checklist-based testing is a review technique that can be used in a formal review process where reviewers, during individual review, try to detect issues within the work product based on a checklist

C.

In checklist-based testing, using checklists at a high level of detail is more likely to produce test cases that are easier to reproduce than those using checklists at a low level of detail

D.

Checklists used in checklist-based testing should be reviewed periodically for updates as, over time, test cases designed using the same checklist may become less effective at finding defects

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Question # 55

Which of the following statements describes regression testing?

I. Retesting of a fixed defect

II. Testing of an already tested program

III. Testing of new functionality in a program

IV. Regression testing applies only to functional testing

V Tests that do not nave to be repeatable, because They are only used once

A.

II, IV, V

B.

I, III, IV

C.

II

D.

I, IV

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Question # 56

Which ONE of the following elements is TYPICALLY used to guide testing duringexploratory testing?

A.

A test charter that defines the testing objectives for the test session.

B.

A comprehensive specification that must be fully available before testing begins.

C.

A detailed test script that prescribes all the steps to be performed.

D.

A predefined test case that must be executed exactly as documented.

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Question # 57

Consider a program that computes the factorial of a number (n). From the specifications you know that:

•If n < 0, a message "Value out of range" must be issued.

•If 0 < n < 100, the program calculates the factorial and returns the number

•If 100 < n < 200 message "Value out of range" must be issued

Which of the following statements about the equivalence partitions is CORRECT?

A.

There are 3 partitions - one for negative numbers, one for numbers up to 100 and the last one for numbers up to 200

B.

The equivalence partitions cannot be determined for this question because the error message for two partitions is exactly same

C.

The requirements are not correct because the partitions are overlapping

D.

The equivalence partitions cannot be determined for this question because factorial of numbers close to 200 will be very large

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