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CTFL_Syll_4.0 Questions and Answers

Question # 6

Which of the following statements refers to good testing practice to be applied regardless of the chosen software development model?

A.

Tests should be written in executable format before the code is written and should act as executable specifications that drive coding

B.

Test levels should be defined such that the exit criteria of one level are part of the entry criteria for the next level

C.

Test objectives should be the same for all test levels, although the number of tests designed at various levels can vary significantly

D.

Involvement of testers in work product reviews should occur as early as possible to take advantage of the early testing principle

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Question # 7

An organization is working on updating test cases for a particular module of their software.

Sam updated a set of test cases yesterday and saved the new version on his PC.

Unfortunately, the hard disk of his PC crashed, and his work was lost.

The IT department of the organization restored the contents of his hard disk with the last available back-up - from the previous morning. However, the changes made by him yesterday were lost forever.

Which of the following tools, had it been used, would have prevented the loss of Sam's updates?

A.

Configuration Management Tool

B.

Incident Management Tool

C.

Backup tool

D.

Test Execution tool

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Question # 8

Confirmation testing is performed after:

A.

a defect is fixed and after other tests do not find any side-effect introduced in the software as a result of such fix

B.

a failed test, and aims to run that test again to confirm that the same behavior still occurs and thus appears to be reproducible

C.

the execution of an automated regression test suite to confirm the absence of false positives in the test results

D.

a defect is fixed, and if such testing is successful then the regression tests that are relevant for such fix can be executed

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Question # 9

You are a tester working on a critical project. Based on the risk analysis you need to decide on the order of test execution. Which of the following lists the correct sequence of test execution? Priority 1 is the highest and Priority 3 is the lowest priority.

Test CasePriorityDependencies

Test A3-

Test B1TestD

TestC2Test A

Test D3•

A.

D-C- B-A

B.

D-B-A-C

C.

D-A-B-C

D.

C-B-A-D

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Question # 10

Which of the following statements about the value of maintaining traceability between the test basis and test work products is not true?

A.

Traceability can be useful for assessing the impact of a change to a test basis item on the corresponding tests

B.

Traceability can be useful for determining how many test basis items are covered by the corresponding tests

C.

Traceability can be useful for determining the most suitable test techniques to be used in a testing project

D.

Traceability can be useful to support the needs required by the auditing of testing

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Question # 11

The following 4 equivalence classes are given:

Which of the following alternatives includes correct test values for x. based on equivalence partitioning?

A.

-100; 100:1000; 1001

B.

-500; 0; 100; 1000

C.

-99; 99:101; 1001

D.

-1000; -100; 100; 1000

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Question # 12

The whole-team approach:

A.

promotes the idea that all team members should have a thorough understanding of test techniques

B.

is a consensus-based approach that engages the whole team in estimating the user stories

C.

promotes the idea that all team members should be responsible for the quality of the product

D.

is mostly adopted in projects aimed at developing safety-critical systems, as it ensures the highest level of testing independence

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Question # 13

A virtual service emulating a real third-party service and the automated test scripts (aimed at testing the system under test) that interact with that service, are test work products that are typically created during:

A.

Test monitoring and control

B.

Test implementation

C.

Test design

D.

Test analysis

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Question # 14

Which of the following answers describes a reason for adopting experience-based testing techniques?

A.

Experience-based test techniques provide more systematic coverage criteria than black-box and white-box test techniques

B.

Experience-based test techniques completely rely on the tester's past experience for designing test cases

C.

Experience-based test techniques allow designing test cases that are usually easier to reproduce than those designed with black-box and white-box test techniques

D.

Experience-based test techniques tend to find defects that may be difficult to find with black-box and white-box test techniques and are often useful to complement these more systematic techniques

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Question # 15

Which of the following statements about traceability is false?

A.

Traceability between test basis items and thetest casesdesigned tocover them,makes it possible to determine which test basis items have been covered by the executedtest cases

B.

Traceability between test basis items and thetest casesdesigned tocover them,enablesexperience-based test techniques to be applied

C.

Traceability between test basis items and thetest casesdesigned tocover them,enablesidentification of which test cases will be affected by changes to the test basisitems

D.

Traceability can be established and maintained throughall test documentation for a giventest level, such as from test conditions through test cases to test scripts

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Question # 16

You are a test manager responsible for implementing risk-based testing in your organization which deals with software in the healthcare domain. You are writing a handbook of various product risk mitigation options. Which ONE of the following options correctly represent the correct mitigation options?

A.

Choosing a tool for automated unit testing to reduce the risks

B.

Using a third party testing company to transfer the risk to that company

C.

Selecting a tester with required knowledge related to compliance and standards

D.

Increasing the number of testers to be able to take care of all the risks

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Question # 17

Which of the following is a typical potential risk of using test automation tools?

A.

Reduced feedback times regarding software quality compared to manual testing

B.

Reduced test execution times compared to manual testing

C.

Reduced repeatability and consistency of tests compared to manual testing

D.

Underestimation of effort required to maintain test scripts

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Question # 18

Which of the following statements is true?

A.

User acceptance tests are usually automated and aim to verify the acceptance criteria for user stories

B.

Acceptance criteria for user stories can include details on data definitions, for example by describing the format, allowed values, and default values for a data item

C.

Acceptance criteria for user stories should focus on positive scenarios, while negative scenarios should be excluded

D.

Tests derived from acceptance criteria for user stories are not included in any of the four testing quadrants

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Question # 19

Match the Work Product with the category it belongs to:

Work Product:

1.Risk register

2.Risk information

3.Test cases

4.Test conditions

Category of work products:

A.

Test planning work products

B.

Test analysis work products.

C.

Test design work products

D.

Test monitoring and control work products

E.

1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B

F.

1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D

G.

1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B

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Question # 20

A software development company invests heavily in tools to support the entire software development lifecycle, including testing. They have a tool that allows automated creation and installation of builds and subsequent execution of various types of automated tests. Which ONE of the following is a CORRECT statement about this type of test tool?

A.

It is an example of collaboration tool

B.

It is an example of DevOps related tools

C.

It is an example of automated unit testing tool

D.

It is an example of test implementation tool

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Question # 21

Which of the following s the most correct statement about state testing techniques?

A.

Static techniques can be used before all code is ready for execution

B.

Static techniques find more detects then dynamic techniques.

C.

Static techniques can be used by inexperienced users.

D.

Static techniques are always cheaper than dynamic techniques.

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Question # 22

Which of the following statements about the shift-left approach is true?

A.

Shift-left in testing can be implemented only in Agile/DevOps frameworks, as it relies completely on automated testing activities performed within a continuous integration process

B.

Performance testing performed during component testing, is a form of shift-left in testing that avoids planning and executing costly end-to-end testing at the system test level in a production-like environment

C.

Shift-left in testing can be implemented in several ways to find functional defects early in the lifecycle, but it cannot be relied upon to find defects associated with non-functional characteristics

D.

Continuous integration supports shift-left in testing as it can reduce the time between the introduction of a defect and its detection, thereby reducing the cost to fix it

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Question # 23

What does the "absence-of-defects fallacy" refer to in software development?

A.

The belief that thoroughly testing all requirements guarantees system success.

B.

The need for constant system quality assurance and improvements.

C.

A misconception that software verification is unnecessary

D.

The idea that fixing defects is NOT important to meeting user needs.

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Question # 24

During component testing of a program if 100% decision coverage is achieved, which of the following coverage criteria is also guaranteed to be 100%?

A.

100% Stale transition coverage

B.

100% Equivalence class coverage

C.

100% Boundary value coverage

D.

100% Statement coverage

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Question # 25

Which of the following are the phases of the ISTQB fundamental test process?

A.

Test planning and control, Test analysis and design, Test implementation and execution, Evaluating ex t criteria and reporting. Test closure activities

B.

Test planning, Test analysis and design. Test implementation and control. Checking test coverage and reporting, Test closure activities

C.

Test planning and control, Test specification and design. Test implementation and execution, Evaluating test coverage and reporting, Retesting and regression testing, Test closure activities

D.

Test planning. Test specification and design. Test implementation and execution. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting. Retesting and test closure activities

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Question # 26

Which of the following are the phases of the ISTQB fundamental test process?

A.

Test planning and control, Test analysis and design, Test implementation and execution, Evaluating ex t criteria and reporting. Test closure activities

B.

Test planning, Test analysis and design. Test implementation and control. Checking test coverage and reporting, Test closure activities

C.

Test planning and control, Test specification and design. Test implementation and execution, Evaluating test coverage and reporting, Retesting and regression testing, Test closure activities

D.

Test planning. Test specification and design. Test implementation and execution. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting. Retesting and test closure activities

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Question # 27

Which ONE of the following statements does NOT describe how testing contributes to higher quality?

A.

Properly designed tests that pass reduce the level of risk in a system.

B.

The testing of software demonstrates the absence of defects.

C.

Software testing identifies defects, which can be used to improve development activities.

D.

Performing a review of the requirement specifications before implementing the system can enhance quality.

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Question # 28

Which of the following is a role that is usually responsible for documenting the findings (e.g., action items, decisions, recommendations) made by the review team as part of a typical formal review?

A.

Review leader

B.

Facilitator

C.

Recorder

D.

Moderator

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Question # 29

Which of the following statement about the shift-left approach is false?

A.

The shift-left approach can only be implemented with test automation

B.

The shift-left approach in testing is compatible with DevOps practices

C.

The shift-left approach can involve security vulnerabilities

D.

The shift-left approach can be supported by static analysis tools

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Question # 30

An e-commerce site accepts credit cards for processing the payment. The payment processing form has a field for the amount of money to be deducted. The minimum amount of money that can be processed is $10. The credit cards have a limit of $5,000 (Five Thousand). Assume that only integers can be accepted as inputs. Which of the following set of boundary values you will choose for EFFICIENT testing for the amount of money that can be spent?

A.

9,5001

B.

10,5000

C.

9,10,11,4999,5000,5001

D.

9,10,5000,5001

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Question # 31

Which of the following statements is true?

A.

In Agile software development, work product documentation tends to be lightweight and manual tests tend to be often unscripted as they are often produced using experience-based test techniques

B.

Sequential development models impose the use of systematic test techniques and do not allow the use of experience-based test techniques

C.

In Agile software development, the first iterations are exclusively dedicated to testing activities, as testing will be used to drive development, which will be performed in the subsequent iterations

D.

Both in Agile software development and in sequential development models, such as the V-model, test levels tend to overlap since they do not usually have defined entry and exit criteria

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Question # 32

Which of the following types of tools is best suited for determining source code compliance with the guidelines provided by a coding standard?

A.

Containerization tool

B.

Fault seeding tool

C.

Static analysis tool

D.

Test data preparation tool

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Question # 33

Consider the following examples of risks identified in different software development projects:

[I]. The contrast color ratio for both normal text and large text of a website does not comply with the applicable accessibility guidelines, making it difficult for many users to read the content on the pages

[II]. A development vendor fails to deliver their software system on time, causing significant delays to system integration testing activities that have been planned as part of a development project for a system of systems

[III]. People in the test team do not have sufficient skills to automate tests at the test levels required by the test automation strategy which does not allow production of an effective regression test suite

[IV]. In a web application, data from untrusted sources is not subject to proper input validation, making the application vulnerable to several security attacks

Which of the following statements is true?

A.

[I] and [III] are product risks; [II] and [IV] are project risks

B.

[I] and [IV] are product risks. [II] and [III] are project risks

C.

[II], [III] and [IV] are product risks; [I] is a project risk

D.

[IV] is a product risk; [I]. [II] and [III] are project risks

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Question # 34

An anti-intrusion system is battery powered and is activated by pressing the only available button. To deactivate the system, the operator must enter a PIN code. The system will stay in alert mode within a configurable timeout and an alarm bell will ring if the system is not deactivated before the timeout expires. The following state transition diagram describes the behavior of the system:

What is the minimum number of test cases needed to cover every unique sequence of exactly 4 states/3 transitions starting and ending in the “Inactive” state? (note that “Inactive” is not a final state in the diagram)

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

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Question # 35

An agile software development organization has recently hired a senior tester. The organization has distributed teams spread across time zones. They need to share test status with various stakeholders including upper management and customers at a regular interval. Which of the following statements seems to be correct with regards to the communication?

A.

Since the stakeholders include upper management, formal reports delivered face-to-face are critical.

B.

Distributed nature of teams working in various time zones means email communication will work better.

C.

Agile nature of the project means very less documentation and hence the status need not be documented and shared in a formal manner

D.

Since the stakeholders include customers frequent informal communication without a specific frequency works better.

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Question # 36

Which of the following statements about static testing and dynamic testing is true?

A.

Unlike dynamic testing, which can be also performed manually, static testing cannot be performed without specialized tools

B.

Static testing is usually much less cost-effective than dynamic testing

C.

Unlike dynamic testing, which focuses on detecting potential defects, static testing focuses on detecting failures which may be due to actual defects

D.

Both static testing and dynamic testing can be used to highlight issues associated with non-functional characteristics

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Question # 37

After being in operation for many years, a document management system must be decommissioned as it has reached its end of life. This system will not be replaced by any other new system. A legal obligation provides that all documents within the system must be kept for at least 20 years in a state archive.

Which of the following statements about maintenance testing for decommissioning of this system is true?

A.

No maintenance testing is required as this system will not be replaced

B.

Data migration testing is required as part of maintenance testing

C.

Confirmation testing is required as part of maintenance testing

D.

Regression testing is required as part of maintenance testing

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Question # 38

You are a tester working on a critical project. Based on the risk analysis you need to decide on the order of test execution. Which of the following lists the correct sequence of test execution? Priority 1 is the highest and Priority 3 is the lowest priority.

Test CasePriorityDependencies

Test A3-

Test B1TestD

TestC2Test A

Test D3•

A.

D-C- B-A

B.

D-B-A-C

C.

D-A-B-C

D.

C-B-A-D

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Question # 39

Which ONE of the following statements is correct?

A.

Static analysis can be used against a work product containing unstructured artifacts

B.

Test cases can be tested using static testing techniques but not the models

C.

There may be legal issues in performing static testing on a commercially available executable library.

D.

Difficult to interpret work products are best tested using static analysis.

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Question # 40

Which of the following statements is true?

A.

In Agile software development, work product documentation tends to be lightweight and manual tests tend to be often unscripted as they are often produced using experience-based test techniques

B.

Sequential development models impose the use of systematic test techniques and do not allow the use of experience-based test techniques

C.

In Agile software development, the first iterations are exclusively dedicated to testing activities, as testing will be used to drive development, which will be performed in the subsequent iterations

D.

Both in Agile software development and in sequential development models, such as the V-model, test levels tend to overlap since they do not usually have defined entry and exit criteria

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Question # 41

Which of the following statements about impact of DevOps on testing is CORRECT?

A.

DevOps helps bring focus on testing of non-functional characteristics

B.

DevOps helps shift focus of testing people to perform operations testing

C.

DevOps helps shift focus of operations people to functional testing

D.

DevOps helps eliminate manual testing by having focus on continuous automated testing

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Question # 42

A program is used to control a manufacturing line (turn machines on and off. start and stop conveyer belts, add raw materials to the flow. etc.). Not all actions are possible at all times. For example, there are certain manufacturing stages that cannot be stopped - unless there is an emergency. A tester attempts to evaluate if all such cases (where a specific action is not allowed) are covered by the tests.

Which coverage metric will provide the needed information for this analysis?

A.

Code coverage

B.

Data flow coverage

C.

Statement coverage

D.

Branch Coverage

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Question # 43

Pariksha labs is a mature software testing company. They are TMMi level 5 certified. Their testing processes are well defined. Which ONE of the following statements is likely to be CORRECT about them?

A.

The company uses same test strategy for all the projects doing minor changes based on test manager responsible for the project because their test strategy template is very mature and do not need to change

B.

The question about the test design techniques to be used is determined based on various factors such as the domain and expectations of the stakeholders

C.

Same set of testing processes are used by them without needing any tweaks because that is the hallmark of a mature testing company.

D.

They try to perform 100% automation for every project because automation is a must for efficiency

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Question # 44

Which of the following answers describes a reason for adopting experience-based testing techniques?

A.

Experience-based test techniques provide more systematic coverage criteria than black-box and white-box test techniques

B.

Experience-based test techniques completely rely on the tester's past experience for designing test cases

C.

Experience-based test techniques allow designing test cases that are usually easier to reproduce than those designed with black-box and white-box test techniques

D.

Experience-based test techniques tend to find defects that may be difficult to find with black-box and white-box test techniques and are often useful to complement these more systematic techniques

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Question # 45

A calculator software is used to calculate the result for 5+6.

The user noticed that the result given is 6.

This is an example of;

A.

Mistake

B.

Fault

C.

Error

D.

Failure

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