PTCE Questions and Answers

Carvedilol (Coreg) and labetalol are both non-selective beta-blockersused to treathypertension and heart failure.

Therapeutic substitutionis allowed whentwo drugs have similar effects but different chemical structures.

Carvedilol is often used in place of labetalol, especially in heart failure patients.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Albuterol?❌Abronchodilator for asthma/COPD, not a beta-blocker.

C. Tramadol?❌Apain reliever (opioid-like), not a beta-blocker.

D. Estradiol?❌Ahormone replacement therapy, not a beta-blocker.

????Reference:PTCE Medication Classification Guide, FDA Beta-Blocker Comparisons.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Nasonexis anasal corticosteroidused to treatallergic rhinitis. Thegeneric name is mometasone furoate.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅A. Mometasone furoate→Correct.Theactive ingredient in Nasonex.❌B. Loteprednol etabonate→ Incorrect.A corticosteroid, but used for eye inflammation.❌C. Desloratadine→ Incorrect.An antihistamine, not a steroid.❌D. Fluticasone→ Incorrect.Similar corticosteroid, but the generic for Flonase, not Nasonex.

????Reference:

FDA Orange Book (Nasonex and Generics)

PTCB Exam: Generic & Brand Name Medications

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Desvenlafaxine (Pristiq)is anSNRI (Serotonin-Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitor)used to treatmajor depressive disorder (MDD).

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅B. Major depressive disorder→Correct.Desvenlafaxine is FDA-approved fordepression.❌A. Hypertension→ Incorrect.Not an antihypertensive.❌C. Benign prostatic hypertrophy→ Incorrect.Alpha-blockers like Tamsulosin treat BPH.❌D. Atrial fibrillation→ Incorrect.Beta-blockers, not SNRIs, manage atrial fibrillation.

????Reference:

FDA Drug Database: Desvenlafaxine

PTCB Exam: Pharmacology for Technicians

????Reference:PTCE Medication Usage Calculations.

Incompatibility in a nonsterile compound can be identified through various physical, chemical, and therapeutic changes.An unexpected change in odoris a key indicator of chemical instability, contamination, or degradation of a compounded preparation. Some ingredients may break down into volatile compounds, leading to noticeable odor changes.

A. A clear solution→ Incorrect; clarity alone does not indicate incompatibility.Some solutions may be clear but still chemically unstable.

B. The use of a pH buffer system→ Incorrect; buffer systems are used to maintain pH stability and prevent incompatibility rather than indicate it.

D. Suspension particles settling to the bottom of a container→ Incorrect; suspensions naturally settle and require shaking before use.This is not necessarily a sign of incompatibility.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

USP <795> Pharmaceutical Compounding—Nonsterile Preparations

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Medication Safety & Quality Assurance)

Remington: The Science and Practice of Pharmacy

AClass I recallis themost seriousrecall issued when amedication labeling erroror contaminationcould result in serious harm or death.

Enoxaparin (Lovenox)is ananticoagulant, whilephytonadione (Vitamin K1)is anantidote for warfarin toxicity—confusing these could lead to life-threatening bleeding or clotting issues.

TheFDA mandates an immediate Class I recallfor errors that could causefatal outcomes.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

B. Class II?❌Used formoderate health risks(e.g., subpotent drugs).

C. Class III?❌Used forminor errors(e.g., misprinted labels, minor defects).

D. Misbranding?❌Misbranding is a regulatory issue butnot a recall classification.

????Reference:FDA Drug Recall Guidelines, ISMP Medication Safety Alerts.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

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Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Cyclophosphamideis ahazardous drugclassified byNIOSH (National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health).USP Chapter 800mandates thatall surfaces exposed to hazardous drugs (HDs), including counting trays, must be decontaminated after each useto prevent cross-contamination.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅C. Decontaminated after each use→Correct.Hazardous drug residues must be removed after each use to prevent contamination.❌A. Activated before each use→ Incorrect. There is no"activation"process for hazardous drug counting trays.❌B. Disposed of after each use→ Incorrect.Counting trays are reusable but must be properly cleaned.❌D. Sterilized before each use→ Incorrect.Sterilization applies to sterile compounding, not hazardous drug handling.

????Reference:

USP <800>: Handling Hazardous Drugs in Healthcare Settings

NIOSH List of Hazardous Drugs (Cyclophosphamide)

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Step 1: Use the formula

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Explanation of Answer Choices:✅C. 2.5→Correct.2.5 mL provides the required25 mg dose.❌A. 0.5→ Incorrect. Too low.❌B. 2→ Incorrect. Under-dose.❌D. 5→ Incorrect. Over-dose.

????Reference:

USP <795>: Pharmaceutical Calculations

PTCB Exam: Dosage Conversions

Needlegauge (G)refers to thediameter of the needle’s lumen(opening).The higher the gauge number, the smaller the needle diameter.

Lower gauge (e.g., 13G, 18G)→Larger needle(wider opening)

Higher gauge (e.g., 27G)→Smaller needle(narrower opening)

Common Needle Gauges and Their Uses:Gauge (G)

Needle Diameter (mm)

Common Use

13G

2.4 mm

IV drug administration (large-bore)

18G

1.2 mm

Drawing thick medications (e.g., oil-based injections)

20G

0.9 mm

General intramuscular (IM) injections

27G

0.4 mm

Subcutaneous (SC) or intradermal (ID) injections (e.g., insulin, vaccines)

Since27Gis the highest gauge listed, it corresponds to thesmallestneedle diameter, making it the correct answer.

A. 13G❌→ One of the largest gauges, used for IV fluids or blood transfusions.

B. 18G❌→ Large needle used for thick medications likedepot injections or contrast agents.

C. 20G❌→ Common forintramuscular injectionsbut larger than 27G.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers needle gauges, injection routes, and proper medication administration.

USP <797> & USP <800>– Provide sterile compounding guidelines, including appropriate needle gauge selection.

CDC Vaccine Administration Guidelines– Recommend25-30Gfor subcutaneous and intradermal injections.

Why Not the Other Options?Key References:

Levigating agentsreduce theparticle sizeof powders to make themeasier to mix into an ointment base.

Common levigating agents includemineral oil, glycerin, and propylene glycol.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Emulsifying agents?❌Help mix oil and water but do NOT help incorporate solids into ointments.

B. Diluents?❌Used toincrease bulk volume(e.g., lactose in tablets).

D. Preservatives?❌Prevent microbial growth, but do NOT help mix solids into ointments.

????Reference:USP <795> Nonsterile Compounding Guidelines.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Pseudoephedrine(Sudafed) is asympathomimetic decongestantthat causesvasoconstrictionand canincrease blood pressure.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅B. Hypertension→Correct.Pseudoephedrinecan cause arise in blood pressure, so it should be used cautiously in patients withhypertension.❌A. Asthma→ Incorrect.Pseudoephedrine does not directly worsen asthma, but it may cause mild bronchodilation.❌C. Hypokalemia→ Incorrect.Pseudoephedrine does not affect potassium levels.❌D. Eczema→ Incorrect. Eczema is unrelated topseudoephedrine use.

????Reference:

Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act (CMEA) Regulations

American Heart Association (AHA) Guidelines on Hypertension

The abbreviation"PO"means"by mouth" (per os).

The abbreviation"ac"stands for"before meals" (ante cibum).

The phrase"daily for 14 days"indicates that the patient should take the medication once a day for a total of 14 days.

Thus, the correct label instructions should be:"Take one capsule by mouth before a meal once daily for 14 days."

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline – Prescription Interpretation– Covers standard medical abbreviations.

ISMP (Institute for Safe Medication Practices) List of Common Pharmacy Abbreviations– Defines "PO" (by mouth) and "ac" (before meals).

USP Medication Labeling Standards– Ensures clear and accurate patient instructions.

Pharmacy Technician References:

When adrug recalloccurs due totemperature excursions(exposure to temperatures outside the manufacturer’s recommended range during transport or storage), the pharmacy mustimmediately remove all affected productfrom its inventory to prevent dispensing compromised medication.

Remove the Affected Product:Quarantine the recalled drug to ensure it is not dispensed.

Verify the Recall Details:Confirm the lot number, expiration date, and reason for the recall using FDA or manufacturer recall notices.

Document the Recall Action:Log details in the pharmacy's recall records for compliance.

Follow Manufacturer or FDA Instructions:Some recalls require returning the product, while others require disposal according to hazardous waste guidelines.

Notify Patients and Providers (If Necessary):If the medication has already been dispensed, further action may be needed depending on recall severity.

B. Contact patients who received a therapeutically equivalent product.→ Incorrect. The recall applies to thespecificaffected lot, not all similar medications. Pharmacists would first verify which patients received the recalled drugbefore contacting them.

C. Switch patients from the oral solution to oral capsules.→ Incorrect. The recall does not automatically require a formulation change. The pharmacy must verify availability of unaffected stock or alternative treatments before making substitutions.

D. Contact all prescribers who recently prescribed the product.→ Incorrect. While prescribersmayneed notification if the recall affects patient treatment, thefirst stepis ensuring the recalled product is removed from stock to prevent further dispensing.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline – Medication Safety and Recall Procedures.

FDA Drug Recall Guidelines (www.fda.gov).

USP <1079> Good Storage and Distribution Practices for Pharmaceuticals.

National Association of Boards of Pharmacy (NABP) Recall Compliance Standards.

Manufacturer Recall Notices (Example: Pfizer, Eli Lilly, etc.).

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician: Principles and Practice – Recall Classifications and Actions.

Steps to Follow in a Drug Recall:Why the Other Answer Choices Are Incorrect:Pharmacy Technician References:

Pharmacy technicians in certain states may initiate the transfer of non-controlled prescriptions under pharmacist supervision.

Controlled substance transfers MUST be done by pharmacists.

????Reference:State Board of Pharmacy Regulations.

To determine the correct volume of amoxicillin suspension per dose, use the given concentration and dose.

Prescription dose:150 mg per dose

Suspension concentration:250 mg per 5 mL

Formula to calculate volume needed:Volume (mL)=Prescribed dose (mg)Concentration (mg/mL)\text{Volume (mL)} = \frac{\text{Prescribed dose (mg)}}{\text{Concentration (mg/mL)}}Volume (mL)=Concentration (mg/mL)Prescribed dose (mg)​

Step 1: Identify Given InformationStep 2: Calculate150 mg250 mg/5 mL=150×5250=750250=3 mL\frac{150 \text{ mg}}{250 \text{ mg/5 mL}} = \frac{150 \times 5}{250} = \frac{750}{250} = 3 \text{ mL}250 mg/5 mL150 mg​=250150×5​=250750​=3 mL

Thus, the patient should take3 mL per dose.

B. 4 mL→ Incorrect; this would correspond to a different strength.

C. 5 mL→ Incorrect; this would deliver250 mg, which is incorrect.

D. 6 mL→ Incorrect; this would deliver300 mg, exceeding the prescribed dose.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Pharmaceutical Calculations – Dosage & Volume Calculations)

USP <795> Guidelines for Nonsterile Compounding & Drug Dilution

Lexicomp Drug Monograph for Amoxicillin Suspension

Phenytoin (Dilantin)is ananticonvulsantthatstabilizes neuronal membranesbyblocking sodium channels, reducing seizure activity.

Used forepilepsy, tonic-clonic seizures, and status epilepticus.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Clonidine?❌Used forhypertension and ADHD, NOT seizures.

B. Atomoxetine?❌Used forADHD, NOT seizures.

C. Guanfacine?❌Used forhypertension and ADHD, NOT seizures.

????Reference:FDA Drug Label for Phenytoin, Epilepsy Foundation Guidelines.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Retin-A (Tretinoin)is atopical retinoidused foracne treatmentandshould be stored with other topical medicationsatroom temperature (68-77°F or 20-25°C).

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅D. Topical preparations→Correct.Retin-A is atopical medicationand should be stored accordingly.❌A. Liquid preparations→ Incorrect.Retin-A is not an oral liquid.❌B. Chemotherapy drugs→ Incorrect.Tretinoin is not classified as chemotherapy.❌C. Refrigerated drugs→ Incorrect.Retin-A should not be refrigerated.

????Reference:

USP <1079>: Storage of Pharmaceuticals

Manufacturer’s Storage Guidelines for Retin-A

Oxybutynin (Ditropan, Oxytrol)is ananticholinergic/antispasmodicmedication thatrelaxes the bladder musclesto treatoveractive bladder (OAB).

It reduces symptoms such asfrequent urination, urgency, and urinary incontinenceby blockingmuscarinic receptorsthat control bladder contractions.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Bronchitis?❌No, bronchitis is treated withbronchodilators, steroids, or antibiotics.

B. Hyperlipidemia?❌No, hyperlipidemia (high cholesterol) is treated withstatins (e.g., atorvastatin).

D. Pancreatitis?❌No, pancreatitis is managed withIV fluids, pain control, and pancreatic enzyme therapy.

????Reference:FDA Oxybutynin Drug Label, Pharmacology of Urinary Anticholinergics.

Nurtec ODT (Rimegepant)is anorally disintegrating tablet (ODT)used for theacute treatment of migraines. Since it is designed to dissolve quickly in the mouth,it is highly sensitive to moisture. Exposure to moisture can cause the tablets to degrade, dissolve prematurely, or lose potency.

Storage Requirement:

Must be kept in the original blister packaging until usetoprevent moisture exposure.

Should not be stored in pill organizers or opened ahead of time.

B. Light→ Incorrect; Nurtec ODT isnot highly photosensitive.

C. Heat→ Incorrect; while heat can degrade many medications,moisture is the primary concernfor ODT formulations.

D. Cold→ Incorrect; refrigeration isnot required, and cold storage does not affect the drug’s stability.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

FDA Drug Label for Nurtec ODT (Rimegepant) – Storage and Handling Instructions

USP <795> Nonsterile Compounding & Drug Stability Guidelines

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Medication Storage & Handling)

Enteric-coated (EC) tabletsare designed todelay drug release until they reach the intestine, preventing stomach irritation and degradation by gastric acid. The coatingresists stomach acidbut dissolves in thehigher pH environment of the intestines.

Aspirin EC(prevents stomach irritation)

Pantoprazole EC(proton pump inhibitor)

Diclofenac EC(NSAID)

A. Buffered→ Incorrect; buffered formulationsneutralize stomach acidbut do not delay release until the intestines.

C. Controlled release→ Incorrect; controlled-release formulationsgradually release medicationover time but are not specifically designed tobypass the stomach.

D. Buccal→ Incorrect; buccal tablets dissolve in thecheek mucosa, bypassing the digestive system entirely.

Examples of Enteric-Coated Medications:Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

FDA Drug Formulation Guidelines

USP <795> Drug Release & Absorption Standards

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Pharmaceutical Dosage Forms & Drug Release Mechanisms)

Thevaricella (chickenpox) vaccine(brand nameVarivax) is alive attenuated virus vaccinethat requiresfreezingto maintain stability.

TheCDC and manufacturers (Merck) require that Varicella vaccine be stored in a freezer at:

Temperature range: -50°C to -15°C (-58°F to +5°F)

Acceptable range:-20°C to -10°C (-4°F to 14°F)

Do NOT store in the refrigerator–Refrigeration deactivates the live virus, making the vaccine ineffective.

Store in a stand-alone freezer(not in a refrigerator/freezer combo) to ensure temperature stability.

B. In the refrigerator (2°C to 8°C/36°F to 46°F)❌→Incorrect.

Refrigerationcompromises the vaccine’s potency, leading to inactivation of the live virus.

C. At room temperature (15°C to 30°C/59°F to 86°F)❌→Incorrect.

Room temperature storage causes rapid degradation of the live virus, rendering the vaccine ineffective.

D. In a warmer (30°C to 40°C/86°F to 104°F)❌→Incorrect & Unsafe.

Thisdestroysthe vaccine and makes it completely ineffective.

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) Vaccine Storage and Handling Guidelines– States that varicella vaccinesmust be stored in the freezer at -50°C to -15°C (-58°F to +5°F).

Manufacturer (Merck) Guidelines for Varivax– Specifies strict freezer storage requirements.

USP <797> & USP <800> Guidelines– Discuss vaccine stability and proper storage conditions.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers vaccine storage and handling protocols.

Proper Long-Term Storage Conditions for Varicella VaccineWhy Not the Other Options?Key References:

Pantoprazole (Protonix)is aproton pump inhibitor (PPI)that isonly available by prescriptionfor treatingGERD, Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, and peptic ulcers.

Omeprazole (Prilosec), Lansoprazole (Prevacid), and Esomeprazole (Nexium)are availableOTC and by prescriptionin different strengths.

Prescription PPIsare typically higher strength than OTC versions.

????Reference:FDA Drug Approvals for OTC and Prescription PPIs.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Glimepiride (Amaryl)is asulfonylureaused tolower blood sugar in type 2diabetesby increasinginsulin secretion from the pancreas.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅C. Glimepiride→Correct.Atype 2 diabetes medication(sulfonylurea).❌A. Galantamine→ Incorrect.Used for Alzheimer’s disease.❌B. Gemfibrozil→ Incorrect.Used to lower cholesterol (fibrate).❌D. Granisetron→ Incorrect.Used for nausea and vomiting (antiemetic).

????Reference:

FDA Drug Database: Glimepiride

PTCB Pharmacology Section: Diabetes Medications

The Master Formulation Record (MFR) is a standardized document that provides step-by-step instructions on how to compound a specificnonsterile preparation.

It includes:

Active and inactive ingredients

Mixing instructions

Equipment needed

Beyond-use dating (BUD)

Storage requirements

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Medication Guide?❌Intended for patient information, not compounding.

C. Patient Package Insert?❌Explains medication use but doesn’t contain compounding instructions.

D. Safety Data Sheet (SDS)?❌Contains safety and hazard information, not formulation instructions.

????Reference:USP <795> Nonsterile Compounding Standards, PTCB Compounding Study Guide.

Citalopram (Celexa) is an SSRI (Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor) used for depression and anxiety.

Other drugs listed are for schizophrenia (clozapine, haloperidol) or anxiety (lorazepam).

????Reference:FDA Approved Antidepressants, PTCE Medication Classification Guide.

A vaccine administration error occurs when a vaccine is given in a way that deviates from standard guidelines established by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and the vaccine manufacturer’s recommendations. Some administration errors must be reported voluntarily to theVaccine Adverse Event Reporting System (VAERS)to help improve vaccine safety and prevent future errors.

(A) Fluzone was administered subcutaneously.✅(Incorrect Route – Error that Should Be Reported)

Fluzone is aninactivated influenza vaccine (IIV)that should be administeredintramuscularly (IM).

Subcutaneous (SQ) administration isnot recommendedand may reduce vaccine efficacy.

According to theCDC and the Immunization Action Coalition (IAC), administering an inactivated influenza vaccine subcutaneously is a vaccine administration error and should be reported.

(B) Boostrix was administered intramuscularly.❌(Correct Route – No Error)

Boostrix is aTdap (Tetanus, Diphtheria, and Acellular Pertussis) vaccineindicated for booster immunization.

It iscorrectly administered intramuscularly (IM)in thedeltoid muscle.

Since the correct administration route was followed, this does not qualify as a vaccine administration error.

(C) Varivax was administered subcutaneously.❌(Correct Route – No Error)

Varivax is alive-attenuated varicella (chickenpox) vaccine.

It iscorrectly administered subcutaneously (SQ), typically in the upper arm or thigh.

Since the correct administration route was followed, this is not a vaccine administration error.

(D) Shingrix was administered intramuscularly.❌(Correct Route – No Error)

Shingrix is arecombinant zoster vaccine (RZV)used for shingles prevention.

It should be administeredintramuscularly (IM).

Since the correct administration route was followed, this is not a vaccine administration error.

TheInstitute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP)and theCDCrecommend reportingvaccine administration errorsto VAERS, especially if the error could affect the vaccine’s efficacy or patient safety.

Administration of Fluzonevia the incorrect route (subcutaneously instead of intramuscularly)could alter immune response and should be reported.

If a vaccine is given via the incorrect route, the CDC provides guidance on whether the dose needs to be repeated. For inactivated influenza vaccines given subcutaneously, the CDC states that the dose doesnot need to be repeated, but the error should still be documented and reported.

CDC General Best Practices for Immunization:https://www.cdc.gov/vaccines/hcp/acip-recs/general-recs/index.html

Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System (VAERS): https://vaers.hhs.gov/

Immunization Action Coalition (IAC) - Vaccine Administration Guidelines: https://www.immunize.org/technical-support/administering-vaccines/

Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) - Vaccine Safety Recommendations: https://www.ismp.org/recommendations/immunization-safety

Analysis of Each Answer Choice:Reporting Vaccine Administration Errors:References for Pharmacy Technicians:

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

If a prescriber fails to include a quantity on a prescription, it is considered a prescribing error. Pharmacists and pharmacy technicians must contact the prescriber for clarification.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:

✅D. Prescribing → Correct. The prescriber made the error by omitting critical information.

❌A. Administration → Incorrect. This refers to errors in how the patient takes the medication.

❌B. Dispensing → Incorrect. This refers to pharmacy errors in filling the prescription.

❌C. Dosage → Incorrect. A dosage error occurs when the wrong dose is prescribed or administered.

????Reference:

ISMP Medication Error Guidelines

PTCB Exam: Types of Medication Errors

AClass III recallis issued whena drug is unlikely to cause adverse health effects but has a labeling defect, packaging issue, or a minor violation of manufacturing regulations.

Example:A bottle of tablets with a slightly misprinted label.

Pharmacies must remove affected stock but are NOT required to notify patients or physicians.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Posting signs?❌Only required for certain urgent recalls.

C. Notifying physicians?❌Required forClass I and some Class II recalls, not Class III.

D. Contacting patients?❌Not needed fornon-health-threatening recalls.

????Reference:FDA Drug Recall Guidelines, PTCE Exam Study Guide.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Lorazepam oral concentrate (Ativan)should be storedat controlled room temperature (20-25°C or 68-77°F)and protected fromlight. It should not be refrigerated or frozen.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅B. Lanoxin oral solution→Correct.LikeLorazepam, Lanoxin (Digoxin)requires room temperature storage.❌A. Lamictal chewable tablets→ Incorrect.Stored at room temperature, but not a liquid formulation.❌C. Lyumjev KwikPen→ Incorrect.Insulin pens require refrigeration.❌D. Lunesta tablets→ Incorrect.A solid dosage form, not comparable to a liquid oral concentrate.

????Reference:

USP <1079>: Storage and Handling of Pharmaceuticals

FDA Storage Recommendations for Lorazepam

Insurance requires accurate “days supply” calculations.If a30-daysupply is incorrectly entered as a90-daysupply, the system will reject early refills.

????Reference:PTCE Pharmacy Billing and Reimbursement Guidelines.

According tofederal law,a reverse distributor must issue a DEA Form 222 (or electronic equivalent) when a pharmacy requests the destruction of a Schedule II controlled substance.

Reverse distributorshandle the return and disposal ofexpired, damaged, or unusable controlled substances.

DEA Form 222 (or CSOS, the electronic equivalent) is required for Schedule II drugs.

Hydrocodone with acetaminophen (e.g., Norco, Vicodin)is aSchedule II controlled substance, requiringDEA Form 222for reverse distribution.

A. Acetaminophen with codeine❌→Schedule III

Does not require DEA Form 222; instead, DEA Form 41 is used for disposal.

C. Promethazine with codeine❌→Schedule V

Lower abuse potential; does not require DEA Form 222.

D. Pseudoephedrine with ibuprofen❌→Not a controlled substance

Pseudoephedrine is regulated under the Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act (CMEA), not the DEA controlled substance schedules.

DEA Controlled Substances Act (CSA)– Confirms thatSchedule II drugs require DEA Form 222 for reverse distribution.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers controlled substances and reverse distribution requirements.

DEA Diversion Control Division Guidelines– Listshydrocodone as a Schedule II drug requiring Form 222 for disposal.

Understanding DEA Form 222 and Reverse Distribution:Why is Hydrocodone with Acetaminophen the Correct Answer?Why Not the Other Options?Key References:

In prescription terminology,"troche" refers to a dosage form, specifically alozengethat dissolves slowly in the mouth to release medication.

Atroche (or lozenge)is asolid, flavoredmedication thatdissolves in the mouthover time, allowing for gradual drug absorption.

Used for:

Local effects(e.g., sore throat relief with benzocaine troches)

Systemic effects(e.g., hormone replacement therapy troches)

A. Time❌→ Incorrect

"Troche" doesnotindicate when to take the medication.

C. Rate❌→ Incorrect

"Troche" doesnotindicate how fast the drug is absorbed.

D. Route❌→ Incorrect

"Troche"describes the dosage form, whilerouterefers to how a drug is administered (e.g., oral, IV).

USP-NF (United States Pharmacopeia–National Formulary)– Defines dosage forms, including lozenges/troches.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers pharmaceutical dosage forms and prescription terminology.

ISMP Medication Safety Guidelines– Includes troches in standard medication formulations.

Definition of Troche:Why Not the Other Options?Key References:

Tall Man letteringis amedication safety strategyrecommended by theFDA, ISMP (Institute for Safe Medication Practices), and The Joint Commissiontoprevent medication errorscaused bylook-alike, sound-alike (LASA) drug names.

Thedistinctive portionsof similar drug names are written inuppercase lettersto highlight differences.

Helps pharmacists, technicians, and healthcare professionals distinguish medications that areeasily confuseddue to similar names.

Reduces the risk ofprescription misinterpretationandmedication errorsin pharmacy settings.

How Tall Man Lettering Works:Examples of Tall Man Lettering (ISMP and FDA-Approved List):Regular Name

Tall Man Lettering Version

prednisone

predniSONE

prednisolone

prednisoLONE

hydroxyzine

hydrOXYzine

hydralazine

hydrALAzine

dobutamine

dobutAMINE

dopamine

dopaMINE

A. Highlights the similarities in drug names.→ Incorrect. Tall Man lettering highlightsdifferences, not similarities, toprevent confusion.

B. Ensures all trade names will be capitalized.→ Incorrect. Tall Man lettering applies toboth brand and generic names, but it is used specifically for drugs with look-alike names.

D. Keeps the pharmacy inventory in alphabetic order.→ Incorrect. Inventory order is based onstandard drug names, not Tall Man lettering.

Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) – Official Tall Man Lettering List.

FDA and The Joint Commission Medication Safety Guidelines.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline – Medication Safety Strategies.

USP <797> and ISMP Guidelines on Look-Alike, Sound-Alike Medications.

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician: Principles and Practice – Error Prevention Strategies.

Why the Other Answer Choices Are Incorrect:Pharmacy Technician References:Conclusion:Tall Man lettering is anessential tool for pharmacy techniciansto helpreduce medication errorsby drawing attention todifferencesbetweensimilar drug names, ensuringsafer dispensing and administrationof medications.

Vistaril = Hydroxyzine, anantihistamine used for anxiety, nausea, and allergies.

Meclizine (Antivert) is also an antihistaminebut is used primarily formotion sickness and vertigo.

????Reference:FDA Approved Drug List, PTCE Medication Guide.

Escitalopram (Lexapro)is aselective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)used formajor depressive disorder (MDD) and generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). If escitalopram isnon-formulary, a suitable alternative would besertraline (Zoloft), anotherSSRIwith a similar mechanism of action and indication.

A. Cabergoline→ Incorrect; cabergoline is adopamine agonistused to treathyperprolactinemia, not depression or anxiety.

B. Ciprofloxacin→ Incorrect; ciprofloxacin is afluoroquinolone antibiotic, unrelated to antidepressant therapy.

D. Amantadine→ Incorrect; amantadine is anantiviral and antiparkinsonianagent, not used for depression.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Pharmacology for Technicians – Nervous System Drugs)

Lexicomp Drug Monographs for SSRIs (Escitalopram & Sertraline)

Goodman & Gilman’s The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics

Beyond-use dates (BUDs) apply specifically to compounded medicationsand indicate thetime frame in which the medication remains stable and safe to use.

BUDs are different from expiration dates, which are determined by manufacturers through long-term stability testing.

USP <795> BUD Guidelines for Nonsterile Compounds:

Non-aqueous formulations(e.g., capsules, powders) →6 months

Water-containing oral formulations(e.g., suspensions) →14 days (refrigerated)

Water-containing topical formulations(e.g., creams, lotions) →30 days

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

B. Manufactured preparation expiration dates?❌Expiration dates apply tocommercially manufactured drugs, NOT compounded ones.

C. Shelf-life of manufactured drugs?❌This is determined by themanufacturer’s expiration date.

D. Time to prepare a compound?❌BUDsdo not refer to preparation time.

????Reference:USP <795> & USP <797> Guidelines, PTCE Compounding Study Materials.

AMaster Formulation Record (MFR)is adetailed document used in compounding pharmaciesto ensureconsistency, accuracy, and quality controlin preparing compounded medications.

An MFR includes:

Ingredients & amounts required.

Compounding procedures.

Stability and beyond-use dating (BUD).

Storage and labeling instructions.

This ensures that each compounded preparationmeets quality standardsand ismade correctly every time.

B. Prevent drug diversion❌→Incorrect

Drug diversion prevention involves security measures, inventory control, and trackingcontrolled substances, not MFRs.

C. Eliminate patient profiles❌→Incorrect

Patient profiles are essential for tracking medication history; MFRs are unrelated.

D. Guarantee drug availability❌→Incorrect

MFRs do not affect drug supply; they ensure accurate compounding.

USP <795> (Non-Sterile Compounding Guidelines)– RequiresMaster Formulation Records for all compounded preparations.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers compounding procedures and quality control measures.

Why Not the Other Options?Key References:

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Hazardous drugs (HDs)must be handled withpersonal protective equipment (PPE), including:

Gloves (chemotherapy-rated)

Gown (disposable, impermeable material)

Eye protection (if splashing risk exists)

Respirator (if airborne exposure is possible)

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅B. Wearing personal protective equipment→Correct.USP <800> mandatesPPEfor handling hazardous drugs.❌A. In a chemical safety cabinet→ Incorrect.Only sterile hazardous drugs require a biological safety cabinet.❌C. Using disposable gloves washed between each use→ Incorrect.Disposable gloves should be discarded, not washed.❌D. In a positive-pressure clean room→ Incorrect.Hazardous drugs require negative pressure rooms, not positive pressure.

????Reference:

USP <800>: Hazardous Drug Handling

NIOSH Guidelines on PPE for Hazardous Drugs

To determine the required volume of U-100 insulin to administer a20-unitdose ofNPH insulin, we use the concentration definition:

U-100 insulinmeans100 units per 1 ml

We need20 units

Using the formula:

Volume (ml)=Dose (units)Concentration (units/ml)\text{Volume (ml)} = \frac{\text{Dose (units)}}{\text{Concentration (units/ml)}}Volume (ml)=Concentration (units/ml)Dose (units)​Volume=20 units100 units/ml=0.2 ml\text{Volume} = \frac{20 \text{ units}}{100 \text{ units/ml}} = 0.2 \text{ ml}Volume=100 units/ml20 units​=0.2 ml

Thus, the correct answer is0.2 ml.

A. 0.02 ml→ Incorrect; this would correspond to only 2 units.

B. 1 ml→ Incorrect; this would correspond to 100 units, far exceeding the prescribed dose.

D. 2 ml→ Incorrect; this would correspond to 200 units, which is incorrect.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Pharmaceutical Calculations)

USP <797> Pharmaceutical Compounding—Sterile Preparations

American Pharmacists Association (APhA) Pharmacy Technician Certification Review

When abody area is exposed to a hazardous substance, thefirst actionshould be tothoroughly flush the area with watertoimmediately remove the contaminantand reduce absorption into the skin.

Flush the affected area with water for at least 15 minutes.

Remove contaminated clothing.

Seek medical attention if needed.

Report the incident to the pharmacy manager.

A. Notify the pharmacy manager→ Incorrect;the immediate priorityis to flush the area.Reporting comes after decontamination.

C. Call environmental services for cleanup→ Incorrect; personal exposure should be addressed before worrying about cleanup.

D. Go to the emergency department→ Incorrect; first aid (flushing with water) should beperformed immediatelybefore seeking additional care if necessary.

Proper Emergency Response:Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

USP <800> Guidelines for Handling Hazardous Drugs

OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) Hazardous Substance Exposure Protocols

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Medication Safety & Hazardous Drug Handling)

Multiple-dose vials (MDVs)containpreservativesto inhibit microbial growth. These vials are designed formultiple withdrawalsover time, increasing the risk of contamination. Preservatives, such asbenzyl alcohol or phenol, help prevent bacterial or fungal contamination after repeated needle insertions.

A. stability and compatibility→ Incorrect. Preservatives do not inhibit drug stability; they prevent microbial contamination.

B. sorption and leaching→ Incorrect. Sorption (adsorption/absorption of drugs onto container surfaces) and leaching (release of chemicals from containers) are unrelated to preservatives.

D. synergistic reactions→ Incorrect. Synergistic reactions refer to drug interactions, not contamination prevention.

Incorrect Answer Choices:Pharmacy Technician References:

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Sterile and Non-Sterile Compounding)

USP <797> Guidelines for Sterile Compounding

American Society of Health-System Pharmacists (ASHP) Guidelines on Multiple-Dose Vials

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician Exam Review

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Mycophenolateis animmunosuppressantused inorgan transplantsand isteratogenic (causes birth defects).It requiresRisk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategies (REMS).

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅B. Mycophenolate→Correct.High risk ofbirth defects, requiring REMS.❌A. Miconazole→ Incorrect.An antifungal with no REMS requirement.❌C. Phentermine→ Incorrect.Used for weight loss, not teratogenic.❌D. Phenytoin→ Incorrect.Has risks but no REMS requirement.

????Reference:

FDA REMS Program for Mycophenolate

PTCB Exam: Medication Safety & REMS

Schedule III & IV drugs can be refilled up to 5 times within 6 months from the date written.

After 6 months or 5 refills, a new prescription is required.

????Reference:DEA Controlled Substance Act (21 CFR 1306).

Therapy duration (length of treatment)must be specified, especially forantibiotics, to ensureappropriate treatment completion and prevent antibiotic resistance.

Typical duration for amoxicillin:

7–10 days for infections

5 days for strep throat

????Reference:CDC Antibiotic Prescribing Guidelines, PTCE Prescription Requirements.

Sertraline (Zoloft)is anSSRI antidepressantused formajor depressive disorder (MDD), anxiety, and other mood disorders.Suicidal ideation(thoughts of self-harm) is aserious and potentially life-threatening side effect, especially inyoung adults. A pharmacy technicianmust notify the pharmacist immediatelyif a patient reportssuicidal thoughts, as this may require immediate medical intervention.

A. Presents new insurance coverage→ Incorrect; this is an administrative issue, not a clinical concern.

B. Requests the refill two days early→ Incorrect; a slight early refill request does not indicate a safety concern.

D. Reports improved interest and motivation→ Incorrect; this is apositive treatment response, not an urgent issue.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

FDA Black Box Warning for SSRIs – Suicide Risk in Young Adults

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Medication Safety & Patient Communication)

Lexicomp Drug Monograph for Sertraline (Zoloft)

Risperidone (Risperdal oral solution)is anatypical antipsychoticused to treatschizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and autism-related irritability.

Itsoral liquid formulationmust be storedin the refrigerator (between 2°C and 8°C or 36°F to 46°F)to maintain stability.

If left at room temperature for an extended period, theactive ingredients can degrade, reducing the medication's effectiveness.

Storage Considerations for Other Medications:

Gabapentin (Neurontin liquid formulation):Must be refrigerated.✅

Sertraline (Zoloft oral solution):Stored at room temperature.❌

Aripiprazole (Abilify liquid formulation):Stored at room temperature.❌

????Reference:Manufacturer’s storage guidelines,USP Chapter <797>for compounded sterile preparations.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

TheDEA (Drug Enforcement Administration) mandates that controlled substance records must be kept for at least 2 years.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅B. 2 years→Correct.TheControlled Substances Act (CSA) requires pharmacies to maintain records for at least 2 years.❌A. 1 year→ Incorrect.Too short.❌C. 5 years→ Incorrect.Some states require longer retention, but federal law states 2 years.❌D. 7 years→ Incorrect.Not required by federal law.

????Reference:

DEA Controlled Substances Act (21 CFR § 1304.04)

PTCB Exam: Pharmacy Law & Regulations

TheDrug Enforcement Administration (DEA)requires that theft or significant loss ofcontrolled substancesbe reported usingDEA Form 106.

(A) Pregabalin✅Schedule V (Controlled Substance – Must be Reported to DEA)

Pregabalin (brand name:Lyrica) is classified as aSchedule V controlled substanceunder theControlled Substances Act (CSA).

Pharmacies must report its theft or significant loss to the DEA using DEA Form 106.

(B) Piroxicam❌Not a Controlled Substance – No Reporting Required

Piroxicam is anonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID).

It isnot a controlled substance, so DEA reporting isnot requiredfor theft or loss.

(C) Prochlorperazine❌Not a Controlled Substance – No Reporting Required

Prochlorperazine is anantiemetic and antipsychotic.

It isnot a controlled substance, so DEA reporting isnot requiredfor theft or loss.

(D) Pioglitazone❌Not a Controlled Substance – No Reporting Required

Pioglitazone (brand name:Actos) is anantidiabetic medication (thiazolidinedione).

It isnot a controlled substance, so DEA reporting isnot requiredfor theft or loss.

Thepharmacist-in-charge (PIC)must fileDEA Form 106in the event of a significant loss or theft of anySchedule II–V controlled substance.

The loss must be reportedwithin one business dayto theDEAand local law enforcement.

Minor losses due to inventory miscounts do not require DEA reporting but should be documented internally.

DEA Controlled Substances Act (CSA): https://www.deadiversion.usdoj.gov/21cfr/21usc/

DEA Form 106 – Reporting Theft/Loss of Controlled Substances: https://www.deadiversion.usdoj.gov/21cfr_reports/theft/

PTCB Exam Content Outline – Pharmacy Laws & Regulations

Controlled Substance Classification of Each Drug:DEA Reporting Requirements for Pharmacy Technicians:References for Pharmacy Technicians:

TheZ-Pak(azithromycin 250 mg) is a5-day antibiotic coursewith aloading doseto reach effective levels quickly.

Day 1: 2 tablets (500 mg total)

Days 2–5: 1 tablet (250 mg) daily

????Reference:FDA Azithromycin Dosing Guidelines, PTCE Exam Study Materials.

Anear miss(orclose call) is anerror that is identified and corrected before it causes harm to a patient.

Example:A technician picks uphydroxyzine (an antihistamine) instead of hydralazine (a blood pressure medication),but the pharmacist catches the mistake before dispensing.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Adverse Drug Event (ADE)?❌Occurs when a patient is actually harmed by medication.

B. Recall?❌Issued by manufacturers or the FDA when a drug is defective or unsafe.

D. Root-Cause Analysis (RCA)?❌A method toanalyze errors AFTER they occurto prevent future mistakes.

????Reference:ISMP Medication Safety Guidelines, PTCE Exam Study Guide on Error Prevention.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

OnceBasaglar insulin pensare opened, they must bediscarded after 28 dayseven if insulin remains, as potency decreases.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅D. 28 days→Correct.FDA-approved discard time for Basaglar.❌A. 1 day→ Incorrect.Too short.kabtak chaoiyue❌B. 7 days→ Incorrect.Too short.❌C. 14 days→ Incorrect.Incorrect expiration timeframe.

????Reference:

FDA Basaglar Storage Guidelines

PTCB Exam: Medication Storage and Expiration

Duloxetine (Cymbalta)is anSNRI antidepressantoften confused withparoxetine (Paxil), another SSRI antidepressantdue tosimilar names andoverlapping indications.

????Reference:ISMP List of Look-Alike, Sound-Alike (LASA) Medications.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

The FDA Orange BookprovidesTherapeutic Equivalence (TE) codesto indicate whether a generic drug isequivalentto a brand-name drug.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅B. The Orange Book→Correct.Liststherapeutic equivalence (TE) codesfor FDA-approved generics.❌A. Remington→ Incorrect.Pharmacy reference book, not used for TE codes.❌C. SDSs→ Incorrect.Used for chemical safety, not drug equivalence.❌D. Package insert→ Incorrect.Does not contain TE codes.

????Reference:

FDA Orange Book

PTCB Exam: Therapeutic Equivalence

TheNational Drug Code (NDC)is a unique 10- or 11-digit number assigned to each drug product in the U.S.Understanding how NDC numbers are structuredis key to answering this question correctly.

The NDC format is as follows:XXXXX-YYYY-ZZ

First segment (XXXXX)→Labeler (Manufacturer or Distributor)

Second segment (YYYY)→Product Code (Specific Drug, Strength, and Formulation)

Third segment (ZZ)→Package Size (Quantity in the Package)

How to Find the Correct Answer?The given NDC:76439-103-10

76439= Manufacturer/Labeler Code

103= Product Code (Specific Drug & Strength)

10= Package Size

To matchthe same medication, theManufacturer (76439) and Product Code (103) must remain the same. Only thepackage size (last segment) can change.

A. 76439-208-10❌→Incorrect

Product Code (208) does not match (103).

B. 76439-103-50✅→Correct

Same manufacturer (76439) and same drug (103), but different package size (50 instead of 10).

C. 74693-103-10❌→Incorrect

Different manufacturer (74693 instead of 76439).

D. 74693-206-50❌→Incorrect

Different manufacturer (74693) and different product code (206).

FDA NDC Directory– Provides details on NDC structure and product identification.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers NDC interpretation and drug identification.

Drug Supply Chain Security Act (DSCSA)– Reinforces correct medication identification using NDC.

Analyzing the Answer Choices:Key References:

Aricept (Donepezil) is a cholinesterase inhibitorused for treatingmild, moderate, or severe Alzheimer's disease dementia.

Itworks by increasing acetylcholine levels in the brain, improving memory and cognitive function.

FDA-approved for all stages of Alzheimer’s disease.

B. Azilect❌→Used for Parkinson’s disease, not Alzheimer's.

Azilect (Rasagiline) is a monoamine oxidase-B (MAO-B) inhibitorthat helps manage Parkinson’s symptoms but is not indicated for dementia.

C. Ambien❌→Used for insomnia, not Alzheimer's dementia.

Ambien (Zolpidem) is a sedative-hypnotic for sleep disordersand does not treat cognitive decline.

D. Atacand❌→Used for hypertension, not dementia.

Atacand (Candesartan) is an angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB) used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure.

FDA Approved Uses for Donepezil (Aricept)– Confirms its indication for all stages of Alzheimer’s disease.

Alzheimer’s Association Treatment Guidelines– Listscholinesterase inhibitors as first-line therapy for dementia.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers pharmacologic treatments for cognitive disorders.

Why Not the Other Options?Key References:

ISMP MERP (Institute for Safe Medication Practices – Medication Error Reporting Program)allows healthcare professionals toreport medication errorsto improve patient safety.

Common errors reported:

Incorrect medication dispensing

Wrong dosages

Look-alike, sound-alike drug errors

????Reference:ISMP Official Medication Error Guidelines.

NTI drugs have small differences between effective and toxic doses.

Examples:Warfarin, Digoxin, Lithium, Theophylline.

Requires close monitoring (lab tests, dose adjustments).

????Reference:FDA NTI Drug List, PTCB Medication Safety Guidelines.

Outdated (expired) medicationsmust not be dispensedand should bequarantinedin a separate area to prevent accidental use.

Remove outdated products from active stock immediately.

Label and store them separatelyuntil proper disposal.

Follow DEA, FDA, and state board guidelines for disposal.

Some medications (e.g., controlled substances) require special disposal procedures.

(A) Shipped to the DEA for disposal❌Incorrect – Only controlled substances require DEA disposal (viaReverse Distributor).

(B) Kept on the shelf to be dispensed first❌Incorrect – Expired medications should NEVER be dispensed.

(C) Isolated from active dispensing stock✅Correct – Medications must be separated from usable stock to prevent dispensing errors.

(D) Reported to the ISMP for tracking❌Incorrect – ISMP (Institute for Safe Medication Practices) monitors medication errors, not expiration management.

FDA Drug Disposal Guidelines: https://www.fda.gov/drugs/disposal-unused-medicines

DEA Controlled Substance Disposal Regulations: https://www.deadiversion.usdoj.gov

PTCB Exam Content Outline – Inventory Management & Drug Disposal

Pharmacy Technician Guidelines for Handling Expired Medications:Analysis of Answer Choices:References for Pharmacy Technicians:

To calculate how muchamoxicillin suspensionwill be used in the first5 days, we follow these steps:

Amoxicillin concentration:250 mg per5 mL

Dosage:1 tsp (5 mL) three times daily (tid)

Duration:First5 days

Step 1: Identify Given InformationStep 2: Calculate Total Daily Volume5 mL×3=15 mL per day5 \text{ mL} \times 3 = 15 \text{ mL per day}5 mL×3=15 mL per day

Step 3: Multiply by 5 Days15 mL/day×5 days=75 mL15 \text{ mL/day} \times 5 \text{ days} = 75 \text{ mL}15 mL/day×5 days=75 mL

Thus, the patient will use75 mLof medication in the first5 days.

A. 25 mL→ Incorrect; this would be correct if taken onlyonce dailyinstead ofthree times daily.

B. 50 mL→ Incorrect; this is the correct amount for3.3 days, not 5 days.

D. 150 mL→ Incorrect; this is thefull 10-day course, not just the first 5 days.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Pharmaceutical Calculations – Dosage & Volume Calculations)

USP <795> Nonsterile Compounding Guidelines

Lexicomp Drug Monograph for Amoxicillin Suspension

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Colchicine (Colcrys, Mitigare)is used to treatacute gout flaresbyreducing inflammation caused by uric acid crystalsin the joints.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅B. Gout flares→Correct.Colchicine is ananti-inflammatory drug specific to gout.❌A. Hyperlipidemia→ Incorrect.Statins are used for hyperlipidemia.❌C. Hypothyroidism→ Incorrect.Levothyroxine is used for hypothyroidism.❌D. Peripheral neuropathy→ Incorrect.Gabapentin or pregabalin are used for nerve pain.

????Reference:

American College of Rheumatology (ACR) Gout Treatment Guidelines

PTCB Exam: Pharmacology for Technicians