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PMI-100 Questions and Answers

Question # 6

A risk response strategy in which the project team shifts the impact of a threat, together with ownership of the response, to a third party is called:

A.

mitigate

B.

accept

C.

transfer

D.

avoid

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Question # 7

Which tool or technique is used to manage change requests and the resulting decisions?

A.

Change control tools

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Delphi technique

D.

Change log

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Question # 8

When does the project team determine which dependencies are discretionary?

A.

Before the Define Activities process

B.

During the Define Activities process

C.

Before the Sequence Activities process

D.

During the Sequence Activities process

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Question # 9

Which tool or technique is used in the Estimate Costs process?

A.

Acquisition

B.

Earned value management

C.

Vendor bid analysis

D.

Forecasting

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Question # 10

Which process involves monitoring the status of the project to update the project costs and managing changes to the cost baseline?

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Plan Cost Management

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Question # 11

The scope of a project cannot be defined without some basic understanding of how to create the specified:

A.

objectives

B.

schedule

C.

product

D.

approach

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Question # 12

Most experienced project managers know that:

A.

every project requires the use of all processes in the PMBOK® Guide.

B.

there is no single way to manage a project.

C.

project management techniques are risk free.

D.

there is only one way to manage projects successfully.

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Question # 13

Which Project Management Process Group includes Collect Requirements, Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, and Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?

A.

Initiating

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Planning

D.

Closing

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Question # 14

Which can be used to determine whether a process is stable or has predictable performance?

A.

Matrix diagram

B.

Histogram

C.

Control chart

D.

Flowchart

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Question # 15

The output that defines an approach to increase the support and minimize negative impacts of stakeholders is the:

A.

stakeholder management strategy.

B.

communications management plan,

C.

stakeholder register,

D.

performance report.

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Question # 16

Types of internal failure costs include:

A.

inspections.

B.

equipment and training.

C.

lost business.

D.

reworking and scrapping.

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Question # 17

Which of the following correctly explains the term "progressive elaboration'?

A.

Changing project specifications continuously

B.

Elaborate tracking of the project progress

C.

Elaborate tracking of the project specifications with a change control system

D.

Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses

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Question # 18

Which technique is commonly used for the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process?

A.

Brainstorming

B.

Strategies for opportunities

C.

Decision tree analysis

D.

Risk data quality assessment

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Question # 19

Which written document helps monitor who is responsible for resolving specific problems and concerns by a target date?

A.

Project Plan

B.

Responsibility Matrix

C.

Issue Log

D.

Scope Document

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Question # 20

In which process is a project manager identified and given the authority to apply resources to project activities?

A.

Acquire Project Team

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Manage Project Execution

D.

Develop Project Charter

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Question # 21

Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Verify Scope process?

A.

Inspection

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Decomposition

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Question # 22

What is the schedule performance index (SPI) using the following data? BAC = $100,000 PV = $50,000 AC = $80,000 EV = $40,000

A.

1

B.

0.4

C.

0.5

D.

0.8

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Question # 23

Which of the following Process Groups covers all nine Project Management Knowledge Areas?

A.

Executing

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Planning

D.

Initiating

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Question # 24

Which degree of authority does a project manager have on a project in a strong matrix organizational structure?

A.

Limited

B.

Low to moderate

C.

Moderate to high

D.

High to almost total

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Question # 25

What is the number of stakeholders, if the project has 28 potential communication channels?

A.

7

B.

8

C.

14

D.

16

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Question # 26

The lowest level normally depicted in a work breakdown structure (VVBS) is called a/an:

A.

work package

B.

deliverable

C.

milestone

D.

activity

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Question # 27

For a stakeholder with low interest and high power, the project manager should:

A.

Monitor the stakeholder.

B.

Manage the stakeholder closely.

C.

Keep the stakeholder satisfied.

D.

Keep the stakeholder informed.

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Question # 28

Stakeholder communication requirements should be included as a component of:

A.

enterprise environmental factors

B.

organizational process assets

C.

the project management plan

D.

the stakeholder register

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Question # 29

The milestone list is an input to which process from the Planning Process Group?

A.

Define Activities

B.

Estimate Activity Durations

C.

Estimate Activity Resources

D.

Sequence Activities

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Question # 30

Which action is included in the Control Costs process?

A.

Identify how the project costs will be planned, structured, and controlled

B.

Determine policies, objectives, and responsibilities to satisfy stakeholder needs

C.

Develop an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities

D.

Monitor cost performance to isolate and understand variances from the approved cost baseline

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Question # 31

Which items are an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

A.

Work performance reports

B.

Accepted deliverables

C.

Project management plan updates

D.

Organizational process assets

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Question # 32

In project management, a temporary project can be:

A.

Completed without planning

B.

A routine business process

C.

Long in duration

D.

Ongoing to produce goods

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Question # 33

The most appropriate project life cycle model for an environment with a high level of change and extensive stakeholder involvement in projects is:

A.

adaptive

B.

reflexive

C.

predictive

D.

iterative

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Question # 34

Which of the Perform Quality Assurance tools and techniques may enhance the creation of the work breakdown structure (VVBS) to give structure to the decomposition of the scope?

A.

Activity network diagrams

B.

Affinity diagrams

C.

Matrix diagrams

D.

Interrelationship digraphs

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Question # 35

Grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority and their level of concern regarding project outcomes describes which classification model for stakeholder analysis?

A.

Influence/impact grid

B.

Power/influence grid

C.

Power/interest grid

D.

Salience model

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Question # 36

The following is a network diagram for a project.

What is the critical path for the project?

A.

A-B-D-G

B.

A-B-E-G

C.

A-C-F-G

D.

A-C-E-G

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Question # 37

One of the key benefits of the Plan Human Resource Management process is that it:

A.

outlines team selection guidelines and team member responsibilities.

B.

establishes project roles and responsibilities.

C.

improves teamwork, interpersonal skills, and competencies.

D.

provides an accurate appraisal of team member performance.

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Question # 38

When painting a bedroom, preparing the walls can be done while the paint is being chosen. This is an example of a:

A.

lead

B.

lag

C.

mandatory dependency

D.

internal dependency

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Question # 39

Project management processes ensure the:

A.

alignment with organizational strategy

B.

efficient means to achieve the project objectives

C.

performance of the project team

D.

effective flow of the project throughout its life cycle

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Question # 40

The process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract is called:

A.

Close Procurements.

B.

Control Procurements.

C.

Plan Procurements.

D.

Conduct Procurements.

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Question # 41

Which of the following is an example of schedule compression?

A.

Activity sequencing

B.

Resource leveling

C.

Lead and lag adjusting

D.

Crashing

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Question # 42

Project or phase closure guidelines or requirements, historical information, and the lessons learned knowledge base are examples of which input to the Close Project or Phase process?

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

A work breakdown structure

C.

The project management plan

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

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Question # 43

Projects can be divided into phases to provide better management control. Collectively, what are these phases known as?

A.

Complete project phase

B.

Project life

C.

The project life cycle

D.

Project cycle

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Question # 44

Which schedule method allows the project team to place buffers on the project schedule path to account for limited resources and project uncertainties?

A.

Critical path method

B.

Critical chain method

C.

Resource leveling

D.

Schedule network analysis

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Question # 45

The purpose of the Project Communications Management Knowledge Area is to:

A.

Monitor and control communications throughout the entire project life cycle.

B.

Maintain an optimal flow of information among all project participants.

C.

Develop an appropriate approach for project communications.

D.

Ensure timely and appropriate collection of project information.

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Question # 46

Which of the following is developed from the project scope baseline and defines only that portion of the project scope that is to be included within a related contract?

A.

Product scope description

B.

Procurement statement of work

C.

Project schedule

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

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Question # 47

Which Process Group contains the processes performed to complete the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project specifications?

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Executing

D.

Closing

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Question # 48

One of the objectives of a quality audit is to:

A.

highlight the need for root cause analysis.

B.

share the process documentation among stakeholders.

C.

offer assistance with non-value-added activities.

D.

identify all of the gaps or shortcomings.

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Question # 49

Which Control Scope input is compared to actual results to determine if corrective action is required for the project?

A.

Scope baseline

B.

Scope management plan

C.

Change management plan

D.

Cost baseline

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Question # 50

Which of the following is an output of the Distribute Information process?

A.

Project calendar

B.

Communications management plan

C.

Organizational process assets updates

D.

Project document updates

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Question # 51

In which type of contract are the performance targets established at the onset and the final contract price determined after completion of all work based on the sellers performance?

A.

Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP)

B.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments (FP-EPA)

C.

Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee (FPIF)

D.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)

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Question # 52

The diagram below is an example of a:

A.

Risk breakdown structure (RBS).

B.

Project team.

C.

SWOT Analysis.

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS).

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Question # 53

Which of the following are an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Identify Risks process?

A.

Work performance reports

B.

Assumptions logs

C.

Network diagrams

D.

Academic studies

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Question # 54

The item that provides more detailed descriptions of the components in the work breakdown structure (WB5) is called a WBS:

A.

dictionary.

B.

chart.

C.

report.

D.

register.

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Question # 55

Which of the following is an estimating technique that uses the values of parameters from previous similar projects for estimating the same parameter or measure for a current project?

A.

Reserve analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Parametric estimating

D.

Analogous estimating

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Question # 56

Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?

A.

Project scope statement

B.

Project charter

C.

Project plan

D.

Project schedule

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Question # 57

Which of the following includes how requirements activities will be planned, tracked, and reported?

A.

Configuration management plan

B.

Scope baseline

C.

Requirements management plan

D.

Schedule baseline

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Question # 58

Which of the following is a group decision-making technique?

A.

Brainstorming

B.

Focus groups

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Plurality

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Question # 59

Requirements documentation will typically contain at least:

A.

Stakeholder requirements, staffing requirements, and transition requirements.

B.

Business requirements, the stakeholder register, and functional requirements.

C.

Stakeholder impact, budget requirements, and communications requirements.

D.

Business objectives, stakeholder impact, and functional requirements.

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Question # 60

At the start of a typical project life cycle, costs are:

A.

low, peak as work is carried out, and drop as the project nears the end.

B.

low, become steady as work is carried out, and increase as the project nears the end.

C.

high, drop as work is carried out, and increase as the project nears the end.

D.

high, become low as work is carried out, and drop as the project nears the end.

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Question # 61

Which of the following is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen?

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Three-point estimate

C.

Modeling and simulation

D.

Expected monetary value analysis

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Question # 62

Which of the following response strategies are appropriate for negative risks or threats?

A.

Share, Accept, Transfer, or Mitigate

B.

Exploit, Enhance, Share, or Accept

C.

Mitigate, Share, Avoid, or Accept

D.

Avoid, Mitigate, Transfer, or Accept

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Question # 63

Projects are separated into phases or subprojects; these phases include:

A.

feasibility study, concept development, design, and prototype.

B.

initiate, plan, execute, and monitor.

C.

Develop Charter, Define Activities, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Report Performance.

D.

Identify Stakeholders, develop concept, build, and test.

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Question # 64

Through whom do project managers accomplish work?

A.

Consultants and stakeholders

B.

Stakeholders and functional managers

C.

Project team members and consultants

D.

Project team members and stakeholders

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Question # 65

Job satisfaction, challenging work, and sufficient financial compensation are values related to which interpersonal skill?

A.

Influencing

B.

Motivation

C.

Negotiation

D.

Trust building

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Question # 66

In the Plan Stakeholder Management process, expert judgment is used to:

A.

Provide information needed to plan appropriate ways to engage project stakeholders.

B.

Ensure comprehensive identification and listing of new stakeholders.

C.

Analyze the information needed to develop the project scope statement.

D.

Decide the level of engagement of the stakeholders at each required stage.

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Question # 67

A large portion of a projects budget is typically expended on the processes in which Process Group?

A.

Executing

B.

Planning

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Closing

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Question # 68

An example of a group decision-ma king technique is:

A.

Nominal group technique.

B.

Majority.

C.

Affinity diagram.

D.

Multi-criteria decision analysis.

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Question # 69

An output of the Develop Project Team process is:

A.

Organizational process assets.

B.

Enterprise environmental factors updates.

C.

Project staff assignments.

D.

Organizational charts and position descriptions.

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Question # 70

Which tool or technique is used to develop the human resource management plan?

A.

Ground rules

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Team-building activities

D.

Interpersonal skills

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Question # 71

Regression analysis, failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), fault tree analysis (FTA), and trend analysis are examples of which tool or technique?

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Forecasting methods

C.

Earned value management

D.

Analytical techniques

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Question # 72

Which tool or technique allows a large number of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis?

A.

Nominal group technique

B.

Idea/mind mapping

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Brainstorming

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Question # 73

An input to Conduct Procurements is:

A.

Independent estimates.

B.

Selected sellers.

C.

Seller proposals.

D.

Resource calendars.

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Question # 74

Sending letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes to share information is an example of which type of communication?

A.

Direct

B.

Interactive

C.

Pull

D.

Push

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Question # 75

Using values such as scope, cost, budget, and duration or measures of scale such as size, weight, and complexity from a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the same parameter or measurement for a current project describes which type of estimating?

A.

Bottom-up

B.

Parametric

C.

Analogous

D.

Three-point

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Question # 76

The Perform Quality Assurance process occurs in which Process Group?

A.

Executing

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Initiating

D.

Planning

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Question # 77

Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost of changes as project time advances?

A.

The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes increases.

B.

The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes increases.

C.

The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes decreases.

D.

The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes decreases.

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Question # 78

When is a project finished?

A.

After verbal acceptance of the customer or sponsor

B.

After lessons learned have been documented in contract closure

C.

When the project objectives have been met

D.

After resources have been released

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Question # 79

Sharing good practices introduced or implemented in similar projects in the organization and/or industry is an example of:

A.

quality audits

B.

process analysis

C.

statistical sampling

D.

benchmarking

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Question # 80

The formal and informal interaction with others in an organization industry, or professional environment is known as:

A.

negotiation

B.

organizational theory

C.

meeting

D.

networking

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Question # 81

The most commonly used type of precedence relationship in the precedence diagramming method (PDM) is:

A.

start-to-start (SS)

B.

start-to-finish (SF)

C.

finish-to-start (FS)

D.

finish-to-finish (FF)

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Question # 82

Identifying major deliverables, deciding if adequate cost estimates can be developed, and identifying tangible components of each deliverable are all part of which of the following?

A.

Work breakdown structure

B.

Organizational breakdown structure

C.

Resource breakdown structure

D.

Bill of materials

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Question # 83

The Human Resource Management processes are:

A.

Develop Human Resource Plan, Acquire Project Team, Develop Project Team, and Manage Project Team.

B.

Acquire Project Team, Manage Project Team, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Develop Project Team.

C.

Acquire Project Team, Develop Human Resource Plan, Conflict Management, and Manage Project Team.

D.

Develop Project Team, Manage Project Team, Estimate Activity Resources, and Acquire Project Team.

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Question # 84

Activity resource requirements and the resource breakdown structure (RBS) are outputs of which Project Time Management process?

A.

Control Schedule

B.

Define Activities

C.

Develop Schedule

D.

Estimate Activity Resources

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Question # 85

Which of the seven basic quality tools is especially useful for gathering attributes data while performing inspections to identify defects?

A.

Histograms

B.

Scatter diagrams

C.

Flowcharts

D.

Checksheets

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Question # 86

During which process group is the quality policy determined?

A.

Initiating

B.

Executing

C.

Planning

D.

Controlling

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Question # 87

When does Monitor and Control Risks occur?

A.

At project initiation

B.

During work performance analysis

C.

Throughout the life of the project

D.

At project milestones

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Question # 88

When would resource leveling be applied to a schedule model?

A.

Before constraints have been identified

B.

Before it has been analyzed by the critical path method

C.

After it has been analyzed by the critical path method

D.

After critical activities have been removed from the critical path

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Question # 89

Which is one of the major outputs of Sequence Activities?

A.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS) update

C.

Project schedule network diagram

D.

Mandatory dependencies list

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Question # 90

Which of the following risk response strategies involves allocating ownership of a positive risk to a third party?

A.

Mitigate

B.

Transfer

C.

Share

D.

Avoid

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Question # 91

Which group creativity technique asks a selected group of experts to answer questionnaires and provide feedback regarding the responses from each round of requirements gathering?

A.

The Delphi technique

B.

Nominal group technique

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Brainstorming

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Question # 92

What does a CPI value greater than 1.0 indicate?

A.

Cost right at the estimated value

B.

Cost under the estimated value

C.

Cost right at the actual value

D.

Cost over the estimated value

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Question # 93

What is the primary benefit of meeting quality requirements?

A.

Quality metrics

B.

Less rework

C.

Quality control measurements

D.

Benchmarking

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Question # 94

Which is used to solicit proposals from prospective sellers?

A.

Procurement statement of work

B.

Resource calendars

C.

Procurement document

D.

Independent estimates

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Question # 95

In the Develop Project Team process, which of the following is identified as a critical factor for a project's success?

A.

Team meetings

B.

Subcontracting teams

C.

Virtual teams

D.

Teamwork

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Question # 96

An input to the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process is the:

A.

quality management plan.

B.

project management plan.

C.

communications management plan.

D.

schedule management plan.

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Question # 97

Which stakeholder approves a project's result?

A.

Customer

B.

Sponsor

C.

Seller

D.

Functional manager

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Question # 98

To please the customer, a project team member delivers a requirement which is uncontrolled. This is not part of the plan. This describes:

A.

scope creep.

B.

a change request.

C.

work performance information.

D.

deliverables.

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Question # 99

An input to the Collect Requirements process is the:

A.

stakeholder register.

B.

project management plan.

C.

project scope statement.

D.

requirements management plan.

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Question # 100

The process to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used is:

A.

Plan Quality.

B.

Perform Quality Assurance.

C.

Perform Quality Control.

D.

Total Quality Management.

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Question # 101

A project manager has created an issue log to document issues communicated by project team members during weekly team meetings. This is an input of:

A.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations.

B.

Monitor and Control Risks.

C.

Plan Risk Management.

D.

Report Performance.

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Question # 102

Which of the following is a tool and technique used to monitor risk?

A.

Technical performance measurement

B.

Cost performance baseline

C.

Benchmarking

D.

Cost of quality

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Question # 103

The process for performing variance analysis may vary, depending on:

A.

scenario building, technology forecasting, and forecast by analogy.

B.

working relationships among various stakeholders and team members.

C.

application area, the standard used, and the industry,

D.

work to be completed next.

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Question # 104

Identify Stakeholders is the process of identifying all of the people or organizations impacted by the project and documenting relevant information regarding their interests in, involvement in, and impact on the project:

A.

manager.

B.

success.

C.

deadline.

D.

scope.

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Question # 105

Resource calendars are included in the:

A.

staffing management plan.

B.

work breakdown structure (WBS).

C.

project communications plan.

D.

project charter.

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