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CA0-001 Questions and Answers

Question # 6

Inspection is a tool and technique for which of the following processes?

A.

Create WBS

B.

Define Scope

C.

Control Scope

D.

Verify Scope

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Question # 7

What is a specific advantage of analogous estimating in comparison with other cost estimate techniques?

A.

Uses contingency reserves

B.

Less costly and time consuming

C.

Can be applied to segments of work

D.

More accurate

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Question # 8

A Project Management Office (PMO) manages a number of aspects, including what?

A.

Project scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the products of the work packages

B.

Central coordinator of communication management across projects, and for the delivery of specific project objectives, organization opportunity assessment

C.

Assigns project resources to best meet project objectives

D.

Overall risk, overall opportunity and interdependencies among projects

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Question # 9

How is scheduled variance calculated using the earned value technique?

A.

EV less AC

B.

AC less PV

C.

EV less PV

D.

AC less EV

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Question # 10

Which of the following techniques is used during Control Scope?

A.

Cost-Benefit Analysis

B.

Variance Analysis

C.

Reserve Analysis

D.

Stakeholder Analysis

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Question # 11

What is a hierarchically organized depiction of the identified project risks arranged by risk category?

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk breakdown structure (RBS)

C.

Risk management plan

D.

Risk category

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Question # 12

Administrative closure is the process that ________.

A.

Closes all activities pertaining to a specific project

B.

Collects user acceptance of the project product or service

C.

Includes all the activities needed to validate the project products and services

D.

Al1 of the above

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Question # 13

Which time estimating tools estimate the basis for activity durations can be quantitatively determined by multiplying the quantity of work to be performed by the productivity rate?

A.

Parametric estimating

B.

Funding limit reconciliation

C.

Reserves analysis

D.

None of the above

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Question # 14

From whom do you need to gain the formal acceptance at project closure?

A.

The customer

B.

The qualify director

C.

Project management office

D.

Project manager

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Question # 15

You are project manager of a project, which of the following is not your responsibility?

A.

Quality in the organization

B.

Acquiring HR resources for the project team

C.

Overall responsibility for risk on the project

D.

Al1 of the above

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Question # 16

Which is not part of Project Plan?

A.

Project Scope Management Plan

B.

Schedule Management Plan

C.

Cost Management Plan

D.

Project Charter

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Question # 17

A Project Manager is at the project kick-off meeting. He confidently states the vision and mission for the project. This PM is exhibiting the following leadership style:

A.

Hierarchal

B.

Authoritarian

C.

Charismatic

D.

Associative

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Question # 18

A contract cannot contain _____________.

A.

Illegal activities

B.

deadline for the completion of the work

C.

Penalties and fines for disclosure of intellectual rights

D.

Al1 of the above

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Question # 19

Based on the PMBOK, who is ultimately responsible for the project quality?

A.

Project team

B.

Project manager

C.

QA manager

D.

Validation engineer

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Question # 20

Which document is best suited for tracking the assignment of all resources to specific tasks in a project?

A.

RACI mAl,x

B.

sow

C.

Staffing management plan D)0 CPI

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Question # 21

Which of the following provides the least accurate in estimating?

A.

Rough order of magnitude

B.

Budget estimate

C.

WBS estimate

D.

Definitive estimate

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Question # 22

The Ishikawa diagram, Pareto chart, control charts, and statistical sampling are examples of ________.

A.

Quality assurance

B.

Quality control

C.

Quality rules

D.

CMM

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Question # 23

A Risk Register is a part of the ________.

A.

Project Scope Statement

B.

Project Management plan

C.

Project Scheduling plan

D.

Project Charter

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Question # 24

Who is responsible for issuing the project charter?

A.

The project manager

B.

The project sponsor

C.

The Team lead

D.

The nianagement

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Question # 25

The project baseline is _______.

A.

Original plans plus the approved changes

B.

Important in the project initiation phase

C.

Initial estimates for tasks and resource utilization

D.

Original plans and the approved major changes

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Question # 26

Which of the following defines a characteristic of a project?

A.

Repetitive

B.

Unique

C.

No outcome

D.

Permanent

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Question # 27

What is the lowest level in a work breakdown structure?

A.

Project task

B.

w°rl< package

C.

sow

D.

None

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Question # 28

Project scope is _____________.

A.

The features and functions that are to be included in a product or service

B.

The work that must NOT be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions

C.

Part °ftne project charter

D.

Part of sow

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Question # 29

The intent of the risk management process group is to ________.

A.

Increase the probability of positive outcomes in the project

B.

Announce project risks

C.

Not consider risks affecting the company

D.

Announce project deliverables

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Question # 30

When you are developing the estimates for project, you choose in a mathematical model to predict estimate. What type of estimation method are you using?

A.

Parametric estimating

B.

Bottom-up estimating

C.

Top-down estimating

D.

Analogous estimating

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Question # 31

What are common types of cost-reimbursable contracts?

A.

CPF

B.

CPFF

C.

CPIF

D.

Al1 of the above

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Question # 32

The project management plan:

A.

Identifies all the steps and processes that will be used after a project is initiated

B.

Steps needed to complete a project task

C.

Prepared at the beginning and fixed throughout the execution of the project

D.

Includes project charter

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Question # 33

Which of the following does not provided by scope statement?

A.

Project justification

B.

Project product

C.

Project manager authority

D.

Project objective

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Question # 34

___________ is a group of processes required to purchase or acquire the products, services, or results needed from outside the project team to perform the work.

A.

Procurement Management

B.

Planning Management

C.

Scope Management

D.

Control Management

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Question # 35

You are the project manager of a project. If there are approved changes to the original scope, what you do with the old original scope?

A.

Save the old versions

B.

No need to save old version

C.

Scrap the old version

D.

Old version is not required

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Question # 36

Which of the following best describes project scope?

A.

The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions

B.

The description of the project deliverables

C.

The authorizing document that allows the project manager to move forward with the project and to assign resources to the tasks

D.

The process of planning and executing all of the required work to deliver the project

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Question # 37

Which of the following is NOT input of Identify Risks?

A.

Project Charter

B.

Stakeholder Register

C.

Pis'* Management Plan

D.

Activity Cost Estimates

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Question # 38

Which type of network diagram is also referred to Activity-on-Node (AON) diagrams?

A.

Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)

B.

Gantt Cnart Diagram (GCD)

C.

Dependency Diagramming Method (DDM)

D.

Arrow Diagramming Method (ADM)

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Question # 39

When the version control numbers should change?

A.

Any change occurs

B.

Major changes are made

C.

Any change related to scope only

D.

Only if minor changes are made

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Question # 40

What process determines which risks might affect the project?

A.

Qualitative risk analysis

B.

Identify Risks

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Quantitative risk analysis

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Question # 41

In which type of organization, a project manager is in complete control of the project?

A.

Projectized organization

B.

Balanced Matrix organization

C.

Strong Matrix

D.

Weak Matrix organization

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Question # 42

Which of the following is not a part of the Earned Value calculations?

A.

Unknown Unknowns

B.

Project Budget

C.

Known Unknowns

D.

Amount of work completed

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Question # 43

A change requests can occur due to:

A.

An external event such as a change in government regulation.

B.

An error or omission in defining the scope of the product.

C.

An error or omission in defining the scope of the project.

D.

all of the above

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Question # 44

The primary output of the project closing process ____________.

A.

To formalize and distribute all information pertaining to the project closing

B.

Lessons learned

C.

To get customer and sponsor approval

D.

Milestone list

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Question # 45

What is the purpose of the WBS?

A.

To show which work elements have been assigned to organizational units.

B.

To ensure that all work within a project is identified and defined within a common framework.

C.

To show the organizational structure of a program.

D.

all of the above

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Question # 46

The scope management provides:

A.

A basis for future decisions about the project.

B.

A baseline to accomplish verification measures.

C.

A baseline to evaluate potential scope changes.

D.

All of the above.

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Question # 47

__________ involves using project characteristics in a mathematical model

A.

Analogous estimating

B.

Life-cycle costing

C.

Parametric modelling

D.

Bottom up estimating

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Question # 48

Which is the most risky phase of a project?

A.

Planning

B.

Closing

C.

Execution

D.

Control

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Question # 49

A project plan is:

A.

A formal, approved document used to guide both project execution and project control.

B.

A document issued by senior management that provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities.

C.

A narrative description of products or services to be supplie

D.

A document describing the organizational breakdown structure of the company.

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Question # 50

_________ is the best choice for buyer when the item is well defined.

A.

Cost plus incentive fee

B.

F'xed P|ice

C.

Time and material

D.

None

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Question # 51

A major assumption of all network scheduling methods is that the activity duration must be _____.

A.

Statistically dependent

B.

Variance distributed

C.

Statistically independent

D.

Deterministic

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Question # 52

When should a project manager be assigned to a project?

A.

As early in the project as feasible.

B.

Preferably before much project planning has been done.

C.

At least prior to the start of project plan execution.

D.

All of the above.

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Question # 53

Which of the following tools and techniques are commonly used in a Define Scope Process?

A.

Product analysis

B.

Expert Judgment

C.

Alternative Identification

D.

All of the above

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Question # 54

In an optimal organization structure, the project manager is:

A.

Functional

B.

Weak matrix

C.

Piojectized

D.

Dedicated project team

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Question # 55

You are project manager of a project and you are offering an estimate that you know will be changed after the contract is signed is ___________.

A.

Bad practice

B.

Unprofessional practice

C.

Bacl f°r both tne buyer and seller

D.

Al1 of the above

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Question # 56

With triangular distribution, the low, likely and high values are 20, 30 and 40, respectively. The mean is _____.

A.

30.0

B.

22.5

C.

25.0

D.

27.5

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Question # 57

Information should be communicated to __________.

A.

Everyone in the communication plan

B.

Everyone on the team

C.

Sponsor

D.

Team 'eacl

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Question # 58

Which of the following is a technique for resolving conflict?

A.

Collaborating

B.

Issue log

C.

Leadership

D.

Motivation

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Question # 59

When do stakeholders have the greatest influence?

A.

At the start of the project

B.

At the end of the project

C.

During execution

D.

Stakeholders have constant influence

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Question # 60

When does risk monitoring and control occur?

A.

At project initiation

B.

During work performance analysis

C.

Throughout the life of the project

D.

At project milestones

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Question # 61

In an organization with a projectized organizational structure, who controls the project budget?

A.

Functional manager

B.

Project manager

C.

Program manager

D.

Project management office

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Question # 62

What causes replanning of the project scope?

A.

Requested changes

B.

Project scope statement changes

C.

Variance analysis

D.

Approved change requests

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Question # 63

What happens to a stakeholder's project influence over time?

A.

Increases

B.

Decreases

C.

Stays the same.

D.

Has no bearing.

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Question # 64

Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities?

A.

Mitigate

B.

Transfer

C.

Exploit

D.

Avoid

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Question # 65

What is the name of a graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships?

A.

Role dependencies chart

B.

Reporting flow diagram

C.

Project organization chart

D.

Project team structure diagram

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Question # 66

Which analysis helps to determine the risks that have the most potential for impacting the project?

A.

Expected monetary value analysis

B.

Sensitivity analysis

C.

Modeling and simulation

D.

Expert judgment

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Question # 67

Which is a true statement regarding project governance?

A.

Project governance approach must be described in the project management plan.

B.

Project governance is independent of the organization or program sponsoring it.

C.

Once a project has begun, it is not necessary to formally initiate each project phase.

D.

Review of project performance and key deliverables is not required for each project phase.

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Question # 68

Which of the following equations is used to calculate cost variance?

A.

EV-AC

B.

AC-EV

C.

AC+EV

D.

AC/EV

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Question # 69

Which of the following are input of close project process?

A.

Project management plan

B.

Contract documentation

C.

Deliverables

D.

All of the above

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Question # 70

During the planning phase of your project, your project team members have discovered another way to complete a portion of the project scope. This method is safer for the project team, but may cost more for the customer. This is an example of _______.

A.

Alternative identification

B.

"'s^ assessment

C.

Alternative selection

D.

Product analysis

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Question # 71

If a project with a SPI of 1.8, what you tell?

A.

The project is running ahead of the schedule

B.

The project is running behind of the schedule

C.

Resources assigned to the project cost 1.8 units

D.

None

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Question # 72

Collect Requirements process starts in Project Planning Phase and uses the outputs of the __________.

A.

Initiation Process

B.

Project closer Process

C.

Estimation Process

D.

Closing process

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Question # 73

Project just went into inclusion mode. This means that project __________.

A.

Has become part of the business processes

B.

Has been accepted by the sponsor and the client

C.

Will be closed due to lack of resources

D.

None of the above

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Question # 74

__________ is providing detailed plans for tasks that are about to start in the near future using the most current information and revisiting future activities when they near their starting dates.

A.

Rolling wave planning

B.

Progressive elaboration

C.

Milestone detail planning

D.

Expert judgment

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Question # 75

Which of the following techniques uses historical information to estimate the activity duration?

A.

Three-point estimating

B.

Organizational process asset

C.

Analogous estimating

D.

Reserve analysis

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Question # 76

A risk may be graded into different priorities by which process?

A.

Risk monitoring and controlling

B.

Risk response planning

C.

Qualitative risk analysis

D.

Quantitative risk analysis

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Question # 77

What characteristic do project and operational work share in common?

A.

Performed by systems

B.

Constrained by limited resources

C.

Repetitiveness

D.

Uniqueness

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Question # 78

A project manager convenes a meeting to determine why the time to produce one product according to specifications has increased from one day to three days over the past month. Which tool or technique is used in this case?

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Quality assurance

C.

Quality control

D.

Variance analysis

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