New Year Sale - Special 70% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: 70dumps

FPGEE Questions and Answers

Question # 6

Antibiotics that often cause colitis-acute inflammation of colon as side effect include:

I- Broad-spectrum penicillins

II- Cephalosporins

III- Clindamycin

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

Full Access
Question # 7

Half-life of tolbutamide is:

A.

12-24 hours

B.

3 hours

C.

6-12 hours

D.

10 hours

E.

8 hours

Full Access
Question # 8

Examples of extended spectrum penicillin may include:

A.

Amoxicillin

B.

Ampicillin

C.

Cloxacillin

D.

Carbenicillin

E.

Dicloxacillin

Full Access
Question # 9

Treatment of large intestine infection mainly caused by food intoxication may include:

I- Lots of fluids

II- Ciprofloxacin

III- Metronidazole

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

Full Access
Question # 10

Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of sulfametoxazole?

A.

Inhibit protein synthesis

B.

Inhibit cell growth by competitive antagonism with folic acid synthesis

C.

Inhibit synthesis of essential metabolites

D.

Alter the function of cell membrane permeability

E.

Inhibit translation of genetic information

Full Access
Question # 11

Examples of drugs that may inhibit DNA gyrase may include:

A.

Gentamycin

B.

Ceftriaxone

C.

Norfloxacin

D.

Erythromycin

E.

Penicillin

Full Access
Question # 12

Which of the following agents would be used in the treatment of infections caused by Helicobacter pylori as combination therapy?

A.

Penicillin, amoxicillin, ampicillin and metronidazole

B.

Clarithromycin, amoxicillin, omeprazole and metronidazole

C.

Clarithromycin, azithromycin and lansoprazole

D.

Ceftriaxone and metronidazole only

E.

Combinations of antibiotic should not be used due to resistance.

Full Access
Question # 13

Indication of salmeterol is:

A.

Thyrotoxicosis - preparation for surgery

B.

Chronic renal disease

C.

Scleroderma renal crisis

D.

Asthma

E.

Allergic rhinitis

Full Access
Question # 14

What would be the preferred route of metabolism of succinyl choline?

A.

Ester hydrolysis

B.

N-oxidation

C.

Glucuronide conjugation

D.

A & B

E.

All of the above

Full Access
Question # 15

Given F = .24, what is the overall hepatic clearance of morphine if the above patient has portal hypertension such that their hepatic blood flow is reduced by ½? Assume the clearance value given in the previous question is entirely hepatic clearance.

A.

30 L/hr/70 Kg

B.

60 L/hr/70 Kg

C.

120 L/hr/70 Kg

D.

250 L/hr/70 Kg

Full Access
Question # 16

Which of the following drugs could be the cause of SM's complaints?

A.

Bismuth subsalicylate

B.

Cotrimoxazole

C.

Doxycycline

D.

Amoxicillin

E.

Loperamide

Full Access
Question # 17

Example of leukotriene antagonist drug include:

A.

Salbutamol

B.

Ipratropium

C.

Zafirlukast

D.

Montelukast

E.

C and D are right

Full Access
Question # 18

Rx Timolol 0.25% dropsMitte: 15 mLSig: gtt. i o.d. BIDOn the prescription label the instructions to the patient should read:

A.

apply one drop into both eyes twice daily.

B.

instil one drop into the left eye twice daily.

C.

instil one drop into the right eye twice daily.

D.

shake well and instil one drop into the left eye twice daily.

E.

shake well and instil one drop into the right ear twice daily.

Full Access
Question # 19

In the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis the salicylates:

A.

Stop and often reverse the progressive joint involvement

B.

Specifically reverse the cause of the disease

C.

Provide only analgesic effect

D.

Are effective because they are uricosuric agents

E.

Are more effective when given with allopurinol

Full Access
Question # 20

Diazepam Injection U.S.P

Diazepam 5 mg/ml

Ethanol 10%

Propylene glycol 40%

Benzyl alcohol 1.5%

Water for Injection qs 100%

In the formulation given above, the following ingredient(s) function(s) as a cosolvent(s):

I ethanol

II propylene glycol

III benzyl alcohol

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

Full Access
Question # 21

Element found in the center of vitamin B12-cyanocobalamin:

A.

Iron

B.

Zinc

C.

Cobalt

D.

Magnesium

E.

Calcium

Full Access
Question # 22

Abundant element in the interstitial fluid may include:

A.

Potassium

B.

Sodium

C.

Magnesium

D.

Calcium

E.

Chloro

Full Access
Question # 23

Which of the following agent is classified as lincosamide antibiotic?

A.

Tetracycline

B.

Aminoglycosides

C.

Vancomycin

D.

Cloramphenicol

E.

Clindamycin

Full Access
Question # 24

Which vitamin is/are fat-soluble?

I- Vitamin E

II- Vitamin K

III- Vitamin B

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

Full Access
Question # 25

An enzyme is:

A.

an oligopeptide

B.

a nucleic acid

C.

unable to hydrolyse polysaccharides

D.

a catalyst

E.

changed chemically in a reaction

Full Access
Question # 26

Which of the following vitamins has tetrahydrofolate coenzyme activity based on its pteridine ring?

A.

Thiamine

B.

Vitamin D

C.

Vitamin K

D.

Folic acid

E.

Pyridoxine

Full Access
Question # 27

Which pyrimidine base is not present in DNA?

A.

Thiamine

B.

Adenine

C.

Uracil

D.

Cytosine

E.

Guanine

Full Access
Question # 28

Mechanism of action of amiloride is:

A.

Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

B.

Modulation of CD3 receptor from the cell surface

C.

Inhibits renal epithelial Na channels

D.

Aldosterone antagonist

E.

Inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

Full Access
Question # 29

Class of nystatin is:

A.

Thiazides

B.

Antiprotozoan agents

C.

Autonomic nervous system drugs

D.

Polyenes

E.

Oral hypoglycemics

Full Access
Question # 30

Mechanism of action of indinavir is:

A.

beta-2 agonist

B.

Inhibits RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

C.

Inhibits reverse transcriptase

D.

Inhibits viral protease

E.

Stimulates lipoprotein lipase

Full Access
Question # 31

Class of demeclocycline is:

A.

Analgesics

B.

Inotropic agents

C.

Penicillins

D.

Antithyroid agents

E.

Aquaretics

Full Access
Question # 32

Gonorrhea, a sexually transmitted disease may be treated by which of the following agents?

I- Cefixime

II- Ceftriaxone

III- Ciprofloxacin

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

Full Access
Question # 33

Class of timolol is:

A.

Antiarrhythmic agents

B.

Antithyroid agents

C.

Anticonvulsants

D.

Beta blockers

E.

Antidepressants

Full Access
Question # 34

Wrong statement regarding MACROLIDES ANTIBIOTICS include:

A.

Used in both gram-positive and gram-negative infections

B.

Used as an alternative to penicillin when patient has allergy to penicillins

C.

Inhibit cell wall synthesis of microorganisms

D.

Increase gastric motility causing cramps and diarrhea as major side effect

E.

Very safe for children

Full Access
Question # 35

The bacteriostatic effect of sulfametoxazole may be increased by:

A.

Penicillin

B.

Sulbactam

C.

Clavulanic acid

D.

Tarzobactam

E.

Trimetroprim

Full Access
Question # 36

Which of the following are/is correct regarding Tetracycline?

I- Inhibit protein synthesis

II- May be used in dental works

III- Cannot be taken for infants less than 8 years old

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

Full Access
Question # 37

Which of the following is one of the most common side effects of vancomycin?

A.

Ototoxicity

B.

Disulfiram like side effect

C.

Diarrhea

D.

Weight gain

E.

Hallucinations

Full Access
Question # 38

Route of administration of erythromycin is:

A.

Inhalation

B.

IV

C.

Sublingual

D.

Intra-auricular

E.

Oral

Full Access
Question # 39

Side effects that may be expected to occur from the administration of oral contraceptives include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A.

fluid retention

B.

headache

C.

hypertension

D.

constipation

E.

depression

Full Access
Question # 40

Indication of leukotrienes modifiers in the treatment of asthma includes which of the following?

I- Acute treatment

II- Prophylaxis

III- Chronic treatment

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

Full Access
Question # 41

Following the ethical principle of nonmaleficence requires that pharmacists:

A.

respect the rights of patients to make choices

B.

do good to patients, placing the benefit of the patient above all else

C.

avoid, remove or prevent harm from people

D.

act with fairness, allowing people access to pharmacy care

E.

act with honesty, without deception

Full Access
Question # 42

Which of the following are similarities between Cytochrome P450 and MAO?

A.

Both add oxygen from O2 to substrates and also form water

B.

Both carry out direct heteroatom oxidations

C.

Both carry out oxidative deaminations

D.

Both carry out N-dealkylations

E.

All of the above

Full Access
Question # 43

Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Tendon dyfunction?

A.

Digitalis

B.

Niacin

C.

Tetracycline

D.

Fluoroquinolones

Full Access
Question # 44

Lansoprazole is not used in which of the following cases?

A.

Gastritis

B.

Peptic Ulcers

C.

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

D.

Thalamus hypertrophy

Full Access
Question # 45

For the majority of drugs, which of the following equations correctly defines clearance?

A.

Cl = Elimination rate/Cp

B.

Cl = QxE

C.

Cl = .7VD/t1/2

D.

All are correct

Full Access
Question # 46

Which of the following statements refers to phenelzine?

A.

Mechanism of action probably involves NO.

B.

Rapid IV infusion predisposes to neuromuscular paralysis.

C.

May work when other antidepressants fail.

D.

Long half-life.

E.

MOA is inhibited irreversibly. Response occurs when >80% platelet MOA is inhibited.

Full Access
Question # 47

Class of reserpine is:

A.

Anticoagulants

B.

Methylxanthines

C.

Inotropic agents

D.

Antiarrhythmic agents

E.

Autonomic nervous system drugs

Full Access
Question # 48

Half-life of streptomycin is:

A.

10-50 hours

B.

8 hours

C.

1 hour

D.

16 hours

E.

3-4 hours

Full Access
Question # 49

Given that the VD = 230 L/70Kg and Cl = 60 L/hr/70 Kg for morphine, approximately how much of a 10 mg IV dose remains after 8 hr, given to a normal 70 Kg patient?

A.

5 mg

B.

2.5 mg

C.

1.25 mg

D.

625 mg

Full Access
Question # 50

Mechanism of action of ampicillin is:

A.

Inhibits cholesterol synthesis

B.

Inhibits transpeptidase

C.

Inhibits viral DNA polymerase

D.

Potentiates glucose-mediated insulin secretion

E.

Inhibits renal epithelial Na channels

Full Access
Question # 51

Which financial statement could be used to determine the total value of prescription drug sales for a pharmacy during the course of a year?

A.

Balance sheet

B.

Statement of investments

C.

Statement of changes in financial position

D.

Income statement

E.

Statement of equity

Full Access
Question # 52

In an adequately powered, randomized controlled trial conducted over 2 years, the desired clinical outcome (i.e. prevention of a serious cardiovascular event) with a new drug is achieved in 25% of the study sample. In the patients who receive a placebo, only 15% obtain the same clinical benefit. The relative risk reduction achieved with the new drug over the study period is:

A.

10%.

B.

15%.

C.

25%.

D.

40%.

E.

50%.

Full Access
Question # 53

The fraction of bound receptors in a well-defined drug-receptor binding system is determined by:

I the equilibrium drug-receptor dissociation constant

II the free drug concentration

III the total receptor concentration

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

Full Access
Question # 54

Physicochemical factors affecting the rate and extent of percutaneous drug absorption include:

I the partition coefficient of the drug molecule

II the presence of surfactants in the formulation

III the type of ointment base

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

Full Access
Question # 55

The use of indomethacin in gout treatment:

A.

Inhibit the acute gout arthritis inflammation by inhibition of prostaglandin formation

B.

Inhibits tubulin synthesis

C.

Accelerate renal excretion of uric acid

D.

Inhibit uric acid synthesis

E.

Inhibit the reabsorption of uric acid by the kidney

Full Access
Question # 56

Enzyme that enables DNA fragments from different sources to be joined:

A.

DNA polymerase

B.

DNA gyrase

C.

DNA ligase

D.

RNA transferase

E.

None of the above

Full Access
Question # 57

False statement regarding vitamin D3 metabolism include:

A.

Vitamin C facilitates absorption of vitamin D3 in the liver

B.

Hydroxylation of D3 is in kidney

C.

Hydroxylation of is D3 in the liver

D.

Parathyroid hormone activate metabolism of vitamin D3 in the kidney

E.

Skin activates synthesis of vitamin D3 by sunlight

Full Access
Question # 58

Identify the correct pathway of blood flow from the small intestine to the liver:

A.

haemorrhoidal vein ? portal vein.

B.

mesenteric vein ? portal vein.

C.

haemorrhoidal vein? inferior vena cava.

D.

mesenteric vein ? hepatic artery.

E.

gastric vein ? hepatic vein.

Full Access
Question # 59

Common etiologic agents of community-acquired pneumonia include:

I Escherichia coli

II Haemophilus influenzae

III Mycoplasma pneumoniae

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

Full Access
Question # 60

The presence of mitochondria in the living cell can be detected by:

A.

Neutral reagent

B.

Jenus green

C.

Morquis reagent

D.

Methylene blue

E.

Phenolphthalein

Full Access
Question # 61

The metabolic degradation of hemoglobin takes place principally in:

A.

RBCs

B.

Reticulum Endothelial

C.

Liver

D.

Kidney

E.

Pancreas

Full Access
Question # 62

Purine may be the end product of:

A.

Amines

B.

Amino acids

C.

Uric acid

D.

Proteins

E.

Enzymes

Full Access
Question # 63

Which of the following is the end product of ANAEROBIC reactions?

A.

Pyruvic acid

B.

CO2

C.

CO2 + H2O

D.

Lactic acid

E.

Proteins

Full Access