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CRISC Questions and Answers

Question # 6

Which of the following will MOST improve stakeholders' understanding of the effect of a potential threat?

A.

Establishing a risk management committee

B.

Updating the organization's risk register to reflect the new threat

C.

Communicating the results of the threat impact analysis

D.

Establishing metrics to assess the effectiveness of the responses

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Question # 7

Which of the following would MOST likely cause a risk practitioner to reassess risk scenarios?

A.

A change in the risk management policy

B.

A major security incident

C.

A change in the regulatory environment

D.

An increase in intrusion attempts

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Question # 8

A risk practitioner notices that a particular key risk indicator (KRI) has remained below its established trigger point for an extended period of time. Which of the following should be done FIRST?

A.

Recommend a re-evaluation of the current threshold of the KRI.

B.

Notify management that KRIs are being effectively managed.

C.

Update the risk rating associated with the KRI In the risk register.

D.

Update the risk tolerance and risk appetite to better align to the KRI.

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Question # 9

An IT operations team implements disaster recovery controls based on decisions from application owners regarding the level of resiliency needed. Who is the risk owner in this scenario?

A.

Business resilience manager

B.

Disaster recovery team lead

C.

Application owner

D.

IT operations manager

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Question # 10

A third-party vendor has offered to perform user access provisioning and termination. Which of the following control accountabilities is BEST retained within the organization?

A.

Reviewing access control lists

B.

Authorizing user access requests

C.

Performing user access recertification

D.

Terminating inactive user access

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Question # 11

When establishing leading indicators for the information security incident response process it is MOST important to consider the percentage of reported incidents:

A.

that results in a full root cause analysis.

B.

used for verification within the SLA.

C.

that are verified as actual incidents.

D.

resolved within the SLA.

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Question # 12

During the initial risk identification process for a business application, it is MOST important to include which of the following stakeholders?

A.

Business process owners

B.

Business process consumers

C.

Application architecture team

D.

Internal audit

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Question # 13

An organization has decided to implement an emerging technology and incorporate the new capabilities into its strategic business plan. Business operations for the technology will be outsourced. What will be the risk practitioner's PRIMARY role during the change?

A.

Managing third-party risk

B.

Developing risk scenarios

C.

Managing the threat landscape

D.

Updating risk appetite

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Question # 14

Mitigating technology risk to acceptable levels should be based PRIMARILY upon:

A.

organizational risk appetite.

B.

business sector best practices.

C.

business process requirements.

D.

availability of automated solutions

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Question # 15

An IT risk practitioner has been asked to regularly report on the overall status and effectiveness of the IT risk management program. Which of the following is MOST useful for this purpose?

A.

Balanced scorecard

B.

Capability maturity level

C.

Internal audit plan

D.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

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Question # 16

Quantifying the value of a single asset helps the organization to understand the:

A.

overall effectiveness of risk management

B.

consequences of risk materializing

C.

necessity of developing a risk strategy,

D.

organization s risk threshold.

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Question # 17

An organization's financial analysis department uses an in-house forecasting application for business projections. Who is responsible for defining access roles to protect the sensitive data within this application?

A.

IT risk manager

B.

IT system owner

C.

Information security manager

D.

Business owner

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Question # 18

Which of the following is the BEST key control indicator (KCI) for a vulnerability management program?

A.

Percentage of high-risk vulnerabilities missed

B.

Number of high-risk vulnerabilities outstanding

C.

Defined thresholds for high-risk vulnerabilities

D.

Percentage of high-risk vulnerabilities addressed

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Question # 19

Which of the following is MOST helpful in determining the effectiveness of an organization's IT risk mitigation efforts?

A.

Assigning identification dates for risk scenarios in the risk register

B.

Updating impact assessments for risk scenario

C.

Verifying whether risk action plans have been completed

D.

Reviewing key risk indicators (KRIS)

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Question # 20

An organization has raised the risk appetite for technology risk. The MOST likely result would be:

A.

increased inherent risk.

B.

higher risk management cost

C.

decreased residual risk.

D.

lower risk management cost.

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Question # 21

A business unit has decided to accept the risk of implementing an off-the-shelf, commercial software package that uses weak password controls. The BEST course of action would be to:

A.

obtain management approval for policy exception.

B.

develop an improved password software routine.

C.

select another application with strong password controls.

D.

continue the implementation with no changes.

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Question # 22

A large organization is replacing its enterprise resource planning (ERP) system and has decided not to deploy the payroll module of the new system. Instead, the current payroll system will continue to be

used. Of the following, who should own the risk if the ERP and payroll system fail to operate as expected?

A.

The business owner

B.

The ERP administrator

C.

The project steering committee

D.

The IT project manager

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Question # 23

A maturity model will BEST indicate:

A.

confidentiality and integrity.

B.

effectiveness and efficiency.

C.

availability and reliability.

D.

certification and accreditation.

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Question # 24

The FIRST task when developing a business continuity plan should be to:

A.

determine data backup and recovery availability at an alternate site.

B.

identify critical business functions and resources.

C.

define roles and responsibilities for implementation.

D.

identify recovery time objectives (RTOs) for critical business applications.

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Question # 25

The MAIN purpose of a risk register is to:

A.

document the risk universe of the organization.

B.

promote an understanding of risk across the organization.

C.

enable well-informed risk management decisions.

D.

identify stakeholders associated with risk scenarios.

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Question # 26

An organization's risk practitioner learns a new third-party system on the corporate network has introduced vulnerabilities that could compromise corporate IT systems. What should the risk practitioner do

FIRST?

A.

Confirm the vulnerabilities with the third party

B.

Identify procedures to mitigate the vulnerabilities.

C.

Notify information security management.

D.

Request IT to remove the system from the network.

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Question # 27

A risk practitioner observes that the fraud detection controls in an online payment system do not perform as expected. Which of the following will MOST likely change as a result?

A.

Impact

B.

Residual risk

C.

Inherent risk

D.

Risk appetite

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Question # 28

The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a vendor risk management program is the percentage of:

A.

vendors providing risk assessments on time.

B.

vendor contracts reviewed in the past year.

C.

vendor risk mitigation action items completed on time.

D.

vendors that have reported control-related incidents.

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Question # 29

Which of the following is MOST critical to the design of relevant risk scenarios?

A.

The scenarios are based on past incidents.

B.

The scenarios are linked to probable organizational situations.

C.

The scenarios are mapped to incident management capabilities.

D.

The scenarios are aligned with risk management capabilities.

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Question # 30

Which of the following BEST indicates that an organizations risk management program is effective?

A.

Fewer security incidents have been reported.

B.

The number of audit findings has decreased.

C.

Residual risk is reduced.

D.

inherent risk Is unchanged.

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Question # 31

Who should be responsible for implementing and maintaining security controls?

A.

End user

B.

Internal auditor

C.

Data owner

D.

Data custodian

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Question # 32

An internally developed payroll application leverages Platform as a Service (PaaS) infrastructure from the cloud. Who owns the related data confidentiality risk?

A.

IT infrastructure head

B.

Human resources head

C.

Supplier management head

D.

Application development head

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Question # 33

A risk practitioner has been asked to evaluate the adoption of a third-party blockchain integration platform based on the value added by the platform and the organization's risk appetite. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Conduct third-party resilience tests.

B.

Review risk related to standards and regulations.

C.

Update the risk register with the process changes.

D.

Conduct a risk assessment with stakeholders.

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Question # 34

Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner when determining the effectiveness of IT controls?

A.

Configuration updates do not follow formal change control.

B.

Operational staff perform control self-assessments.

C.

Controls are selected without a formal cost-benefit

D.

analysis-Management reviews security policies once every two years.

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Question # 35

Which of the following is MOST important to understand when developing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

KRI thresholds

B.

Integrity of the source data

C.

Control environment

D.

Stakeholder requirements

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Question # 36

When prioritizing risk response, management should FIRST:

A.

evaluate the organization s ability and expertise to implement the solution.

B.

evaluate the risk response of similar organizations.

C.

address high risk factors that have efficient and effective solutions.

D.

determine which risk factors have high remediation costs

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Question # 37

Which of the following is MOST important to sustainable development of secure IT services?

A.

Security training for systems development staff

B.

\Well-documented business cases

C.

Security architecture principles

D.

Secure coding practices

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Question # 38

Who is responsible for IT security controls that are outsourced to an external service provider?

A.

Organization's information security manager

B.

Organization's risk function

C.

Service provider's IT management

D.

Service provider's information security manager

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Question # 39

Business areas within an organization have engaged various cloud service providers directly without assistance from the IT department. What should the risk practitioner do?

A.

Recommend the IT department remove access to the cloud services.

B.

Engage with the business area managers to review controls applied.

C.

Escalate to the risk committee.

D.

Recommend a risk assessment be conducted.

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Question # 40

When testing the security of an IT system, il is MOST important to ensure that;

A.

tests are conducted after business hours.

B.

operators are unaware of the test.

C.

external experts execute the test.

D.

agreement is obtained from stakeholders.

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Question # 41

After mapping generic risk scenarios to organizational security policies, the NEXT course of action should be to:

A.

record risk scenarios in the risk register for analysis.

B.

validate the risk scenarios for business applicability.

C.

reduce the number of risk scenarios to a manageable set.

D.

perform a risk analysis on the risk scenarios.

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Question # 42

When of the following provides the MOST tenable evidence that a business process control is effective?

A.

Demonstration that the control is operating as designed

B.

A successful walk-through of the associated risk assessment

C.

Management attestation that the control is operating effectively

D.

Automated data indicating that risk has been reduced

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Question # 43

Which of the following is the BEST indication that an organization's risk management program has not reached the desired maturity level?

A.

Significant increases in risk mitigation budgets

B.

Large fluctuations in risk ratings between assessments

C.

A steady increase in the time to recover from incidents

D.

A large number of control exceptions

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Question # 44

The PRIMARY reason for establishing various Threshold levels for a set of key risk indicators (KRIs) is to:

A.

highlight trends of developing risk.

B.

ensure accurate and reliable monitoring.

C.

take appropriate actions in a timely manner.

D.

set different triggers for each stakeholder.

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Question # 45

Which of the following is MOST important to include in a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor agreement?

A.

An annual contract review

B.

A service level agreement (SLA)

C.

A requirement to adopt an established risk management framework

D.

A requirement to provide an independent audit report

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Question # 46

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to establish the root cause of an IT security incident?

A.

Prepare a report for senior management.

B.

Assign responsibility and accountability for the incident.

C.

Update the risk register.

D.

Avoid recurrence of the incident.

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Question # 47

Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to have in place when developing a risk management framework?

A.

A strategic approach to risk including an established risk appetite

B.

A risk-based internal audit plan for the organization

C.

A control function within the risk management team

D.

An organization-wide risk awareness training program

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Question # 48

Which of the following is the BEST course of action when risk is found to be above the acceptable risk appetite?

A.

Review risk tolerance levels

B.

Maintain the current controls.

C.

Analyze the effectiveness of controls.

D.

Execute the risk response plan

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Question # 49

A risk practitioner is reviewing a vendor contract and finds there is no clause to control privileged access to the organization's systems by vendor employees. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Contact the control owner to determine if a gap in controls exists.

B.

Add this concern to the risk register and highlight it for management review.

C.

Report this concern to the contracts department for further action.

D.

Document this concern as a threat and conduct an impact analysis.

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Question # 50

Which of these documents is MOST important to request from a cloud service

provider during a vendor risk assessment?

A.

Nondisclosure agreement (NDA)

B.

Independent audit report

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Service level agreement (SLA)

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Question # 51

A risk practitioner has just learned about new done FIRST?

A.

Notify executive management.

B.

Analyze the impact to the organization.

C.

Update the IT risk register.

D.

Design IT risk mitigation plans.

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Question # 52

An organization with a large number of applications wants to establish a security risk assessment program. Which of the following would provide the MOST useful information when determining the frequency of risk assessments?

A.

Feedback from end users

B.

Results of a benchmark analysis

C.

Recommendations from internal audit

D.

Prioritization from business owners

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Question # 53

Which of the following should be the risk practitioner s FIRST course of action when an organization has decided to expand into new product areas?

A.

Identify any new business objectives with stakeholders.

B.

Present a business case for new controls to stakeholders.

C.

Revise the organization's risk and control policy.

D.

Review existing risk scenarios with stakeholders.

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Question # 54

When presenting risk, the BEST method to ensure that the risk is measurable against the organization's risk appetite is through the use of a:

A.

risk map

B.

cause-and-effect diagram

C.

maturity model

D.

technology strategy plan.

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Question # 55

Which of the following should management consider when selecting a risk mitigation option?

A.

Maturity of the enterprise architecture

B.

Cost of control implementation

C.

Reliability of key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Reliability of key risk indicators (KPIs)

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Question # 56

A risk practitioner learns that the organization s industry is experiencing a trend of rising security incidents. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A.

Evaluate the relevance of the evolving threats.

B.

Review past internal audit results.

C.

Respond to organizational security threats.

D.

Research industry published studies.

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Question # 57

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure ongoing control effectiveness?

A.

Establishing policies and procedures

B.

Periodically reviewing control design

C.

Measuring trends in control performance

D.

Obtaining management control attestations

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Question # 58

The PRIMARY benefit of classifying information assets is that it helps to:

A.

communicate risk to senior management

B.

assign risk ownership

C.

facilitate internal audit

D.

determine the appropriate level of control

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Question # 59

Which of the following provides the MOST helpful reference point when communicating the results of a risk assessment to stakeholders?

A.

Risk tolerance

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk awareness

D.

Risk policy

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Question # 60

Which of the following is MOST helpful in identifying gaps between the current and desired state of the IT risk environment?

A.

Analyzing risk appetite and tolerance levels

B.

Assessing identified risk and recording results in the risk register

C.

Evaluating risk scenarios and assessing current controls

D.

Reviewing guidance from industry best practices and standards

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Question # 61

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to consider when determining the control requirements for data privacy arising from emerging technologies?

A.

internal audit recommendations

B.

Laws and regulations

C.

Policies and procedures

D.

Standards and frameworks

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Question # 62

When updating a risk register with the results of an IT risk assessment, the risk practitioner should log:

A.

high impact scenarios.

B.

high likelihood scenarios.

C.

treated risk scenarios.

D.

known risk scenarios.

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Question # 63

A PRIMARY advantage of involving business management in evaluating and managing risk is that management:

A.

better understands the system architecture.

B.

is more objective than risk management.

C.

can balance technical and business risk.

D.

can make better-informed business decisions.

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Question # 64

The PRIMARY objective for requiring an independent review of an organization's IT risk management process should be to:

A.

assess gaps in IT risk management operations and strategic focus.

B.

confirm that IT risk assessment results are expressed as business impact.

C.

verify implemented controls to reduce the likelihood of threat materialization.

D.

ensure IT risk management is focused on mitigating potential risk.

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Question # 65

An organization planning to transfer and store its customer data with an offshore cloud service provider should be PRIMARILY concerned with:

A.

data aggregation

B.

data privacy

C.

data quality

D.

data validation

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Question # 66

Which of the following would present the MOST significant risk to an organization when updating the incident response plan?

A.

Obsolete response documentation

B.

Increased stakeholder turnover

C.

Failure to audit third-party providers

D.

Undefined assignment of responsibility

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Question # 67

After a high-profile systems breach at an organization s key vendor, the vendor has implemented additional mitigating controls. The vendor has voluntarily shared the following set of assessments:

Which of the assessments provides the MOST reliable input to evaluate residual risk in the vendor's control environment?

A.

External audit

B.

Internal audit

C.

Vendor performance scorecard

D.

Regulatory examination

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Question # 68

Which type of indicators should be developed to measure the effectiveness of an organization's firewall rule set?

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Key management indicators (KMIs)

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Key control indicators (KCIs)

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Question # 69

Key risk indicators (KRIs) are MOST useful during which of the following risk management phases?

A.

Monitoring

B.

Analysis

C.

Identification

D.

Response selection

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Question # 70

Which of the following is the MOST important objective of establishing an enterprise risk management (ERM) function within an organization?

A.

To have a unified approach to risk management across the organization

B.

To have a standard risk management process for complying with regulations

C.

To optimize risk management resources across the organization

D.

To ensure risk profiles are presented in a consistent format within the organization

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Question # 71

When evaluating enterprise IT risk management it is MOST important to:

A.

create new control processes to reduce identified IT risk scenarios

B.

confirm the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance

C.

report identified IT risk scenarios to senior management

D.

review alignment with the organization's investment plan

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Question # 72

Which of the following is MOST important to have in place to ensure the effectiveness of risk and security metrics reporting?

A.

Organizational reporting process

B.

Incident reporting procedures

C.

Regularly scheduled audits

D.

Incident management policy

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Question # 73

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when sharing risk management updates with executive management?

A.

Including trend analysis of risk metrics

B.

Using an aggregated view of organizational risk

C.

Relying on key risk indicator (KRI) data

D.

Ensuring relevance to organizational goals

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Question # 74

In which of the following system development life cycle (SDLC) phases should controls be incorporated into system specifications?

A.

Implementation

B.

Development

C.

Design

D.

Feasibility

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Question # 75

While conducting an organization-wide risk assessment, it is noted that many of the information security policies have not changed in the past three years. The BEST course of action is to:

A.

review and update the policies to align with industry standards.

B.

determine that the policies should be updated annually.

C.

report that the policies are adequate and do not need to be updated frequently.

D.

review the policies against current needs to determine adequacy.

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Question # 76

Which of the following is the MOST important factor affecting risk management in an organization?

A.

The risk manager's expertise

B.

Regulatory requirements

C.

Board of directors' expertise

D.

The organization's culture

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Question # 77

Which of the following elements of a risk register is MOST likely to change as a result of change in management's risk appetite?

A.

Key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Risk likelihood and impact

D.

Risk velocity

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Question # 78

Which of the following would be considered a vulnerability?

A.

Delayed removal of employee access

B.

Authorized administrative access to HR files

C.

Corruption of files due to malware

D.

Server downtime due to a denial of service (DoS) attack

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Question # 79

IT management has asked for a consolidated view into the organization's risk profile to enable project prioritization and resource allocation. Which of the following materials would

be MOST helpful?

A.

IT risk register

B.

List of key risk indicators

C.

Internal audit reports

D.

List of approved projects

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Question # 80

A risk practitioner is organizing a training session lo communicate risk assessment methodologies to ensure a consistent risk view within the organization Which of the following i< the MOST important topic to cover in this training?

A.

Applying risk appetite

B.

Applying risk factors

C.

Referencing risk event data

D.

Understanding risk culture

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Question # 81

The number of tickets to rework application code has significantly exceeded the established threshold. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner s BEST recommendation?

A.

Perform a root cause analysis

B.

Perform a code review

C.

Implement version control software.

D.

Implement training on coding best practices

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Question # 82

Which of the following BEST helps to mitigate risk associated with excessive access by authorized users?

A.

Conducting periodic reviews of authorizations granted

B.

Revoking access for users changing roles

C.

Monitoring user activity using security logs

D.

Granting access based on least privilege

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Question # 83

The PRIMARY benefit of selecting an appropriate set of key risk indicators (KRIs) is that they:

A.

serve as a basis for measuring risk appetite.

B.

align with the organization's risk profile.

C.

provide a warning of emerging high-risk conditions.

D.

provide data for updating the risk register.

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Question # 84

Which of the following observations from a third-party service provider review would be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

A.

Service level agreements (SLAs) have not been met over the last quarter.

B.

The service contract is up for renewal in less than thirty days.

C.

Key third-party personnel have recently been replaced.

D.

Monthly service charges are significantly higher than industry norms.

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Question # 85

Due to a change in business processes, an identified risk scenario no longer requires mitigation. Which of the following is the MOST important reason the risk should remain in the risk register?

A.

To support regulatory requirements

B.

To prevent the risk scenario in the current environment

C.

To monitor for potential changes to the risk scenario

D.

To track historical risk assessment results

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Question # 86

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of a control monitoring program?

A.

Time between control failure and failure detection

B.

Number of key controls as a percentage of total control count

C.

Time spent on internal control assessment reviews

D.

Number of internal control failures within the measurement period

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Question # 87

Which of the following is the MOST important information to be communicated during security awareness training?

A.

Management's expectations

B.

Corporate risk profile

C.

Recent security incidents

D.

The current risk management capability

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Question # 88

Which of the following is the BEST measure of the effectiveness of an employee deprovisioning process?

A.

Number of days taken to remove access after staff separation dates

B.

Number of days taken for IT to remove access after receipt of HR instructions

C.

Number of termination requests processed per reporting period

D.

Number of days taken for HR to provide instructions to IT after staff separation dates

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Question # 89

An identified high probability risk scenario involving a critical, proprietary business function has an annualized cost of control higher than the annual loss expectancy. Which of the following is the BEST risk response?

A.

Mitigate

B.

Accept

C.

Transfer

D.

Avoid

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Question # 90

A recent audit identified high-risk issues in a business unit though a previous control self-assessment (CSA) had good results. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the difference?

A.

The audit had a broader scope than the CSA.

B.

The CSA was not sample-based.

C.

The CSA did not test control effectiveness.

D.

The CSA was compliance-based, while the audit was risk-based.

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Question # 91

To minimize risk in a software development project, when is the BEST time to conduct a risk analysis?

A.

During the business requirement definitions phase

B.

Before periodic steering committee meetings

C.

At each stage of the development life cycle

D.

During the business case development

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Question # 92

Which of the following would be the GREATEST concern related to data privacy when implementing an Internet of Things (loT) solution that collects personally identifiable information (Pll)?

A.

A privacy impact assessment has not been completed.

B.

Data encryption methods apply to a subset of Pll obtained.

C.

The data privacy officer was not consulted.

D.

Insufficient access controls are used on the loT devices.

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Question # 93

The PRIMARY basis for selecting a security control is:

A.

to achieve the desired level of maturity.

B.

the materiality of the risk.

C.

the ability to mitigate risk.

D.

the cost of the control.

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Question # 94

Which of the following should be considered FIRST when assessing risk associated with the adoption of emerging technologies?

A.

Organizational strategy

B.

Cost-benefit analysis

C.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

D.

Business requirements

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Question # 95

A risk practitioner has been notified that an employee sent an email in error containing customers' personally identifiable information (Pll). Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Report it to the chief risk officer.

B.

Advise the employee to forward the email to the phishing team.

C.

follow incident reporting procedures.

D.

Advise the employee to permanently delete the email.

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Question # 96

An organization has outsourced its backup and recovery procedures to a third-party cloud provider. Which of the following is the risk practitioner s BEST course of action?

A.

Accept the risk and document contingency plans for data disruption.

B.

Remove the associated risk scenario from the risk register due to avoidance.

C.

Mitigate the risk with compensating controls enforced by the third-party cloud provider.

D.

Validate the transfer of risk and update the register to reflect the change.

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Question # 97

Which of the following should be initiated when a high number of noncompliant conditions are observed during review of a control procedure?

A.

Disciplinary action

B.

A control self-assessment

C.

A review of the awareness program

D.

Root cause analysis

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Question # 98

The BEST way to validate that a risk treatment plan has been implemented effectively is by reviewing:

A.

results of a business impact analysis (BIA).

B.

the original risk response plan.

C.

training program and user awareness documentation.

D.

a post-implementation risk and control self-assessment (RCSA).

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Question # 99

Which of the following events is MOST likely to trigger the need to conduct a risk assessment?

A.

An incident resulting in data loss

B.

Changes in executive management

C.

Updates to the information security policy

D.

Introduction of a new product line

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Question # 100

Which of the following is MOST helpful when prioritizing action plans for identified risk?

A.

Comparing risk rating against appetite

B.

Obtaining input from business units

C.

Determining cost of controls to mitigate risk

D.

Ranking the risk based on likelihood of occurrence

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Question # 101

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to trace the impact of aggregated risk across an organization's technical environment?

A.

Business case documentation

B.

Organizational risk appetite statement

C.

Enterprise architecture (EA) documentation

D.

Organizational hierarchy

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Question # 102

When determining the accuracy of a key risk indicator (KRI), it is MOST important that the indicator:

A.

is correlated to risk and tracks variances in the risk.

B.

is assigned to IT processes and projects with a low level of risk.

C.

has a high correlation with the process outcome.

D.

triggers response based on risk thresholds.

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Question # 103

Which of the following management actions will MOST likely change the likelihood rating of a risk scenario related to remote network access?

A.

Creating metrics to track remote connections

B.

Updating the organizational policy for remote access

C.

Updating remote desktop software

D.

Implementing multi-factor authentication

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Question # 104

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when assessing the likelihood that a recently discovered software vulnerability will be exploited?

A.

The skill level required of a threat actor

B.

The amount of personally identifiable information (PH) disclosed

C.

The ability to detect and trace the threat action

D.

The amount of data that might be exposed by a threat action

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Question # 105

An organization has contracted with a cloud service provider to support the deployment of a new product. Of the following, who should own the associated risk?

A.

The head of enterprise architecture (EA)

B.

The IT risk manager

C.

The information security manager

D.

The product owner

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Question # 106

Which of the following is MOST important for management to consider when deciding whether to invest in an IT initiative that exceeds management's risk appetite?

A.

Risk management budget

B.

Risk management industry trends

C.

Risk tolerance

D.

Risk capacity

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Question # 107

Which of the following would MOST effectively enable a business operations manager to identify events exceeding risk thresholds?

A.

Continuous monitoring

B.

A control self-assessment

C.

Transaction logging

D.

Benchmarking against peers

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Question # 108

Which of the following will BEST quantify the risk associated with malicious users in an organization?

A.

Business impact analysis

B.

Risk analysis

C.

Threat risk assessment

D.

Vulnerability assessment

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Question # 109

A risk heat map is MOST commonly used as part of an IT risk analysis to facilitate risk:

A.

identification.

B.

treatment.

C.

communication.

D.

assessment

Full Access
Question # 110

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to validate organizational awareness of cybersecurity risk?

A.

Conducting security awareness training

B.

Updating the information security policy

C.

Implementing mock phishing exercises

D.

Requiring two-factor authentication

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Question # 111

A risk practitioner is defining metrics for security threats that were not identified by antivirus software. Which type of metric is being developed?

A.

Key control indicator (KCI)

B.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

C.

Operational level agreement (OLA)

D.

Service level agreement (SLA)

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Question # 112

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY driver for the prioritization of risk responses?

A.

Residual risk

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Mitigation cost

D.

Inherent risk

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Question # 113

An organizational policy requires critical security patches to be deployed in production within three weeks of patch availability. Which of the following is the BEST metric to verify adherence to the policy?

A.

Maximum time gap between patch availability and deployment

B.

Percentage of critical patches deployed within three weeks

C.

Minimum time gap between patch availability and deployment

D.

Number of critical patches deployed within three weeks

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Question # 114

A risk assessment has identified that an organization may not be in compliance with industry regulations. The BEST course of action would be to:

A.

conduct a gap analysis against compliance criteria.

B.

identify necessary controls to ensure compliance.

C.

modify internal assurance activities to include control validation.

D.

collaborate with management to meet compliance requirements.

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Question # 115

Which of the following is the BEST way to identify changes to the risk landscape?

A.

Internal audit reports

B.

Access reviews

C.

Threat modeling

D.

Root cause analysis

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Question # 116

Which process is MOST effective to determine relevance of threats for risk scenarios?

A.

Vulnerability assessment

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Root cause analysis

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Question # 117

Which of the following should be considered FIRST when creating a comprehensive IT risk register?

A.

Risk management budget

B.

Risk mitigation policies

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk analysis techniques

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Question # 118

An organization wants to transfer risk by purchasing cyber insurance. Which of the following would be MOST important for the risk practitioner to communicate to senior management for contract negotiation purposes?

A.

Most recent IT audit report results

B.

Replacement cost of IT assets

C.

Current annualized loss expectancy report

D.

Cyber insurance industry benchmarking report

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Question # 119

Which of the following should a risk practitioner do FIRST when an organization decides to use a cloud service?

A.

Review the vendor selection process and vetting criteria.

B.

Assess whether use of service falls within risk tolerance thresholds.

C.

Establish service level agreements (SLAs) with the vendor.

D.

Check the contract for appropriate security risk and control provisions.

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Question # 120

An organization has just implemented changes to close an identified vulnerability that impacted a critical business process. What should be the NEXT course of action?

A.

Redesign the heat map.

B.

Review the risk tolerance.

C.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Update the risk register.

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Question # 121

Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of the board of directors in corporate risk governance?

A.

Approving operational strategies and objectives

B.

Monitoring the results of actions taken to mitigate risk

C.

Ensuring the effectiveness of the risk management program

D.

Ensuring risk scenarios are identified and recorded in the risk register

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Question # 122

A risk practitioner has learned that an effort to implement a risk mitigation action plan has stalled due to lack of funding. The risk practitioner should report that the associated risk has been:

A.

mitigated

B.

accepted

C.

avoided

D.

deferred

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Question # 123

Which of the following would be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing current key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

The KRIs' source data lacks integrity.

B.

The KRIs are not automated.

C.

The KRIs are not quantitative.

D.

The KRIs do not allow for trend analysis.

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Question # 124

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to establish the root cause of an IT security incident?

A.

Update the risk register.

B.

Assign responsibility and accountability for the incident.

C.

Prepare a report for senior management.

D.

Avoid recurrence of the incident.

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Question # 125

A bank is experiencing an increasing incidence of customer identity theft. Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate this risk?

A.

Implement monitoring techniques.

B.

Implement layered security.

C.

Outsource to a local processor.

D.

Conduct an awareness campaign.

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Question # 126

Which of the following is the MOST important enabler of effective risk management?

A.

User awareness of policies and procedures

B.

Implementation of proper controls

C.

Senior management support

D.

Continuous monitoring of threats and vulnerabilities

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Question # 127

An organization has received notification that it is a potential victim of a cybercrime that may have compromised sensitive customer data. What should be The FIRST course of action?

A.

Invoke the incident response plan.

B.

Determine the business impact.

C.

Conduct a forensic investigation.

D.

Invoke the business continuity plan (BCP).

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Question # 128

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when using a generic set of IT risk scenarios for risk analysis?

A.

Quantitative analysis might not be possible.

B.

Risk factors might not be relevant to the organization

C.

Implementation costs might increase.

D.

Inherent risk might not be considered.

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Question # 129

WhichT5f the following is the MOST effective way to promote organization-wide awareness of data security in response to an increase in regulatory penalties for data leakage?

A.

Enforce sanctions for noncompliance with security procedures.

B.

Conduct organization-w>de phishing simulations.

C.

Require training on the data handling policy.

D.

Require regular testing of the data breach response plan.

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Question # 130

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose for ensuring senior management understands the organization’s risk universe in relation to the IT risk management program?

A.

To define effective enterprise IT risk appetite and tolerance levels

B.

To execute the IT risk management strategy in support of business objectives

C.

To establish business-aligned IT risk management organizational structures

D.

To assess the capabilities and maturity of the organization’s IT risk management efforts

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Question # 131

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner's NEXT step after learning of an incident that has affected a competitor?

A.

Activate the incident response plan.

B.

Implement compensating controls.

C.

Update the risk register.

D.

Develop risk scenarios.

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Question # 132

A poster has been displayed in a data center that reads. "Anyone caught taking photographs in the data center may be subject to disciplinary action." Which of the following control types has been implemented?

A.

Corrective

B.

Detective

C.

Deterrent

D.

Preventative

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Question # 133

Which of the following should be the FIRST course of action if the risk associated with a new technology is found to be increasing?

A.

Re-evaluate current controls.

B.

Revise the current risk action plan.

C.

Escalate the risk to senior management.

D.

Implement additional controls.

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Question # 134

A recent regulatory requirement has the potential to affect an organization's use of a third party to supply outsourced business services. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A.

Conduct a gap analysis.

B.

Terminate the outsourcing agreement.

C.

Identify compensating controls.

D.

Transfer risk to the third party.

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Question # 135

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when assessing the risk of using Internet of Things (loT) devices to collect and process personally identifiable information (Pll)?

A.

Costs and benefits

B.

Local laws and regulations

C.

Security features and support

D.

Business strategies and needs

Full Access
Question # 136

Which of the following findings of a security awareness program assessment would cause the GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

A.

The program has not decreased threat counts.

B.

The program has not considered business impact.

C.

The program has been significantly revised

D.

The program uses non-customized training modules.

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Question # 137

An organization is implementing robotic process automation (RPA) to streamline business processes. Given that implementation of this technology is expected to impact existing controls, which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Reassess whether mitigating controls address the known risk in the processes.

B.

Update processes to address the new technology.

C.

Update the data governance policy to address the new technology.

D.

Perform a gap analysis of the impacted processes.

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Question # 138

An organization is considering outsourcing user administration controls tor a critical system. The potential vendor has offered to perform quarterly sett-audits of its controls instead of having annual independent audits. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to me risk practitioner?

A.

The controls may not be properly tested

B.

The vendor will not ensure against control failure

C.

The vendor will not achieve best practices

D.

Lack of a risk-based approach to access control

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Question # 139

Before assigning sensitivity levels to information it is MOST important to:

A.

define recovery time objectives (RTOs).

B.

define the information classification policy

C.

conduct a sensitivity analyse

D.

Identify information custodians

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Question # 140

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to assess the magnitude of identified deficiencies in the IT control environment?

A.

Peer benchmarks

B.

Internal audit reports

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA) results

D.

Threat analysis results

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Question # 141

Which of the following would MOST effectively reduce risk associated with an increase of online transactions on a retailer website?

A.

Scalable infrastructure

B.

A hot backup site

C.

Transaction limits

D.

Website activity monitoring

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Question # 142

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to validate that risk responses have been executed as outlined in the risk response plan''

A.

To ensure completion of the risk assessment cycle

B.

To ensure controls arc operating effectively

C.

To ensure residual risk Is at an acceptable level

D.

To ensure control costs do not exceed benefits

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Question # 143

Which of the following is the MAIN purpose of monitoring risk?

A.

Communication

B.

Risk analysis

C.

Decision support

D.

Benchmarking

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Question # 144

Using key risk indicators (KRIs) to illustrate changes in the risk profile PRIMARILY helps to:

A.

communicate risk trends to stakeholders.

B.

assign ownership of emerging risk scenarios.

C.

highlight noncompliance with the risk policy

D.

identify threats to emerging technologies.

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Question # 145

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of centralizing IT systems?

A.

Risk reporting

B.

Risk classification

C.

Risk monitoring

D.

Risk identification

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Question # 146

Which of the following would be of MOST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing risk action plans for documented IT risk scenarios?

A.

Individuals outside IT are managing action plans for the risk scenarios.

B.

Target dates for completion are missing from some action plans.

C.

Senior management approved multiple changes to several action plans.

D.

Many action plans were discontinued after senior management accepted the risk.

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Question # 147

Business management is seeking assurance from the CIO that IT has a plan in place for early identification of potential issues that could impact the delivery of a new application Which of the following is the BEST way to increase the chances of a successful delivery'?

A.

Implement a release and deployment plan

B.

Conduct comprehensive regression testing.

C.

Develop enterprise-wide key risk indicators (KRls)

D.

Include business management on a weekly risk and issues report

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Question # 148

Which of the following sources is MOST relevant to reference when updating security awareness training materials?

A.

Risk management framework

B.

Risk register

C.

Global security standards

D.

Recent security incidents reported by competitors

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Question # 149

Which of the following contributes MOST to the effective implementation of risk responses?

A.

Clear understanding of the risk

B.

Comparable industry risk trends

C.

Appropriate resources

D.

Detailed standards and procedures

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Question # 150

What should be the PRIMARY consideration related to data privacy protection when there are plans for a business initiative to make use of personal information?

A.

Do not collect or retain data that is not needed.

B.

Redact data where possible.

C.

Limit access to the personal data.

D.

Ensure all data is encrypted at rest and during transit.

Full Access
Question # 151

Which of the following would be of GREATEST concern regarding an organization's asset management?

A.

Lack of a mature records management program

B.

Lack of a dedicated asset management team

C.

Decentralized asset lists

D.

Incomplete asset inventory

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Question # 152

Which of the following BEST balances the costs and benefits of managing IT risk*?

A.

Prioritizing and addressing risk in line with risk appetite

. Eliminating risk through preventive and detective controls

B.

Considering risk that can be shared with a third party

C.

Evaluating the probability and impact of risk scenarios

Full Access
Question # 153

What is the BEST recommendation to reduce the risk associated with potential system compromise when a vendor stops releasing security patches and updates for a business-critical legacy system?

A.

Segment the system on its own network.

B.

Ensure regular backups take place.

C.

Virtualize the system in the cloud.

D.

Install antivirus software on the system.

Full Access
Question # 154

Which of the following is the BEST method to maintain a common view of IT risk within an organization?

A.

Collecting data for IT risk assessment

B.

Establishing and communicating the IT risk profile

C.

Utilizing a balanced scorecard

D.

Performing and publishing an IT risk analysis

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Question # 155

Which of the following would BEST facilitate the implementation of data classification requirements?

A.

Implementing a data toss prevention (DLP) solution

B.

Assigning a data owner

C.

Scheduling periodic audits

D.

Implementing technical controls over the assets

Full Access
Question # 156

Following an acquisition, the acquiring company's risk practitioner has been asked to update the organization's IT risk profile What is the MOST important information to review from the acquired company to facilitate this task?

A.

Internal and external audit reports

B.

Risk disclosures in financial statements

C.

Risk assessment and risk register

D.

Business objectives and strategies

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Question # 157

Which risk response strategy could management apply to both positive and negative risk that has been identified?

A.

Transfer

B.

Accept

C.

Exploit

D.

Mitigate

Full Access
Question # 158

A company has recently acquired a customer relationship management (CRM) application from a certified software vendor. Which of the following will BE ST help lo prevent technical vulnerabilities from being exploded?

A.

implement code reviews and Quality assurance on a regular basis

B.

Verity me software agreement indemnifies the company from losses

C.

Review the source coda and error reporting of the application

D.

Update the software with the latest patches and updates

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Question # 159

Which of the following is MOST important to promoting a risk-aware culture?

A.

Regular testing of risk controls

B.

Communication of audit findings

C.

Procedures for security monitoring

D.

Open communication of risk reporting

Full Access
Question # 160

Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to consider when developing its IT strategy?

A.

IT goals and objectives

B.

Organizational goals and objectives

C.

The organization's risk appetite statement

D.

Legal and regulatory requirements

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Question # 161

What is the MAIN benefit of using a top-down approach to develop risk scenarios?

A.

It describes risk events specific to technology used by the enterprise.

B.

It establishes the relationship between risk events and organizational objectives.

C.

It uses hypothetical and generic risk events specific to the enterprise.

D.

It helps management and the risk practitioner to refine risk scenarios.

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Question # 162

A zero-day vulnerability has been discovered in a globally used brand of hardware server that allows hackers to gain

access to affected IT systems. Which of the following is MOST likely to change as a result of this situation?

A.

Control effectiveness

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk likelihood

D.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

Full Access
Question # 163

Which of the following is the MOST comprehensive resource for prioritizing the implementation of information systems controls?

A.

Data classification policy

B.

Emerging technology trends

C.

The IT strategic plan

D.

The risk register

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Question # 164

Which of the following provides the MOST comprehensive information when developing a risk profile for a system?

A.

Results of a business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Risk assessment results

C.

A mapping of resources to business processes

D.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

Full Access
Question # 165

What is the PRIMARY reason an organization should include background checks on roles with elevated access to production as part of its hiring process?

A.

Reduce internal threats

B.

Reduce exposure to vulnerabilities

C.

Eliminate risk associated with personnel

D.

Ensure new hires have the required skills

Full Access
Question # 166

Which of the following is the MOST important benefit of reporting risk assessment results to senior management?

A.

Promotion of a risk-aware culture

B.

Compilation of a comprehensive risk register

C.

Alignment of business activities

D.

Facilitation of risk-aware decision making

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Question # 167

it was determined that replication of a critical database used by two business units failed. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern1?

A.

The underutilization of the replicated Iink

B.

The cost of recovering the data

C.

The lack of integrity of data

D.

The loss of data confidentiality

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Question # 168

In order to efficiently execute a risk response action plan, it is MOST important for the emergency response team members to understand:

A.

system architecture in target areas.

B.

IT management policies and procedures.

C.

business objectives of the organization.

D.

defined roles and responsibilities.

Full Access
Question # 169

The PRIMARY objective of collecting information and reviewing documentation when performing periodic risk analysis should be to:

A.

Identify new or emerging risk issues.

B.

Satisfy audit requirements.

C.

Survey and analyze historical risk data.

D.

Understand internal and external threat agents.

Full Access
Question # 170

Which of the following is MOST important to consider before determining a response to a vulnerability?

A.

The likelihood and impact of threat events

B.

The cost to implement the risk response

C.

Lack of data to measure threat events

D.

Monetary value of the asset

Full Access
Question # 171

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner’s BEST recommendation upon learning of an updated cybersecurity regulation that could impact the organization?

A.

Perform a gap analysis

B.

Conduct system testing

C.

Implement compensating controls

D.

Update security policies

Full Access
Question # 172

The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of the security patching process is the percentage of patches installed:

A.

by the security administration team.

B.

successfully within the expected time frame.

C.

successfully during the first attempt.

D.

without causing an unplanned system outage.

Full Access
Question # 173

Senior management wants to increase investment in the organization's cybersecurity program in response to changes in the external threat landscape. Which of the following would BEST help to prioritize investment efforts?

A.

Analyzing cyber intelligence reports

B.

Engaging independent cybersecurity consultants

C.

Increasing the frequency of updates to the risk register

D.

Reviewing the outcome of the latest security risk assessment

Full Access
Question # 174

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to perform periodic vendor risk assessments?

A.

To provide input to the organization's risk appetite

B.

To monitor the vendor's control effectiveness

C.

To verify the vendor's ongoing financial viability

D.

To assess the vendor's risk mitigation plans

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Question # 175

An organization is analyzing the risk of shadow IT usage. Which of the following is the MOST important input into the assessment?

A.

Business benefits of shadow IT

B.

Application-related expresses

C.

Classification of the data

D.

Volume of data

Full Access
Question # 176

Which of the following is the MAIN benefit to an organization using key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

KRIs provide an early warning that a risk threshold is about to be reached.

B.

KRIs signal that a change in the control environment has occurred.

C.

KRIs provide a basis to set the risk appetite for an organization.

D.

KRIs assist in the preparation of the organization's risk profile.

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Question # 177

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure key risk indicators (KRIs) provide value to risk owners?

A.

Ongoing training

B.

Timely notification

C.

Return on investment (ROI)

D.

Cost minimization

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Question # 178

An organization maintains independent departmental risk registers that are not automatically aggregated. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern?

A.

Management may be unable to accurately evaluate the risk profile.

B.

Resources may be inefficiently allocated.

C.

The same risk factor may be identified in multiple areas.

D.

Multiple risk treatment efforts may be initiated to treat a given risk.

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Question # 179

When preparing a risk status report for periodic review by senior management, it is MOST important to ensure the report includes

A.

risk exposure in business terms

B.

a detailed view of individual risk exposures

C.

a summary of incidents that have impacted the organization.

D.

recommendations by an independent risk assessor.

Full Access
Question # 180

Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern when reviewing the results of an independent control assessment to determine the effectiveness of a vendor's control environment?

A.

The report was provided directly from the vendor.

B.

The risk associated with multiple control gaps was accepted.

C.

The control owners disagreed with the auditor's recommendations.

D.

The controls had recurring noncompliance.

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Question # 181

The MAIN purpose of selecting a risk response is to.

A.

ensure compliance with local regulatory requirements

B.

demonstrate the effectiveness of risk management practices.

C.

ensure organizational awareness of the risk level

D.

mitigate the residual risk to be within tolerance

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Question # 182

When defining thresholds for control key performance indicators (KPIs). it is MOST helpful to align:

A.

information risk assessments with enterprise risk assessments.

B.

key risk indicators (KRIs) with risk appetite of the business.

C.

the control key performance indicators (KPIs) with audit findings.

D.

control performance with risk tolerance of business owners.

Full Access
Question # 183

Which of the following is the BEST course of action when an organization wants to reduce likelihood in order to reduce a risk level?

A.

Monitor risk controls.

B.

Implement preventive measures.

C.

Implement detective controls.

D.

Transfer the risk.

Full Access
Question # 184

The BEST indicator of the risk appetite of an organization is the

A.

regulatory environment of the organization

B.

risk management capability of the organization

C.

board of directors' response to identified risk factors

D.

importance assigned to IT in meeting strategic goals

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Question # 185

An organization is concerned that its employees may be unintentionally disclosing data through the use of social media sites. Which of the following will MOST effectively mitigate tins risk?

A.

Requiring the use of virtual private networks (VPNs)

B.

Establishing a data classification policy

C.

Conducting user awareness training

D.

Requiring employee agreement of the acceptable use policy

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Question # 186

Which of The following BEST represents the desired risk posture for an organization?

A.

Inherent risk is lower than risk tolerance.

B.

Operational risk is higher than risk tolerance.

C.

Accepted risk is higher than risk tolerance.

D.

Residual risk is lower than risk tolerance.

Full Access
Question # 187

An organization is considering the adoption of an aggressive business strategy to achieve desired growth From a risk management perspective what should the risk practitioner do NEXT?

A.

Identify new threats resorting from the new business strategy

B.

Update risk awareness training to reflect current levels of risk appetite and tolerance

C.

Inform the board of potential risk scenarios associated with aggressive business strategies

D.

Increase the scale for measuring impact due to threat materialization

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Question # 188

The BEST way to mitigate the high cost of retrieving electronic evidence associated with potential litigation is to implement policies and procedures for.

A.

data logging and monitoring

B.

data mining and analytics

C.

data classification and labeling

D.

data retention and destruction

Full Access
Question # 189

An organization's business gap analysis reveals the need for a robust IT risk strategy. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's PRIMARY consideration when participating in development of the new strategy?

A.

Scale of technology

B.

Risk indicators

C.

Risk culture

D.

Proposed risk budget

Full Access
Question # 190

When developing a response plan to address security incidents regarding sensitive data loss, it is MOST important

A.

revalidate current key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

revise risk management procedures.

C.

review the data classification policy.

D.

revalidate existing risk scenarios.

Full Access
Question # 191

An organization's recovery team is attempting to recover critical data backups following a major flood in its data center. However, key team members do not know exactly what steps should be taken to address this crisis. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this situation?

A.

Failure to test the disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Lack of well-documented business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Lack of annual updates to the disaster recovery plan (DRP)

D.

Significant changes in management personnel

Full Access
Question # 192

An organization has experienced several incidents of extended network outages that have exceeded tolerance. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST step to address this situation?

A.

Recommend additional controls to address the risk.

B.

Update the risk tolerance level to acceptable thresholds.

C.

Update the incident-related risk trend in the risk register.

D.

Recommend a root cause analysis of the incidents.

Full Access
Question # 193

During a risk assessment, a key external technology supplier refuses to provide control design and effectiveness information, citing confidentiality concerns. What should the risk practitioner do NEXT?

A.

Escalate the non-cooperation to management

B.

Exclude applicable controls from the assessment.

C.

Review the supplier's contractual obligations.

D.

Request risk acceptance from the business process owner.

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Question # 194

A global company s business continuity plan (BCP) requires the transfer of its customer information….

event of a disaster. Which of the following should be the MOST important risk consideration?

A.

The difference In the management practices between each company

B.

The cloud computing environment is shared with another company

C.

The lack of a service level agreement (SLA) in the vendor contract

D.

The organizational culture differences between each country

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Question # 195

Which of the following would MOST likely require a risk practitioner to update the risk register?

A.

An alert being reported by the security operations center.

B.

Development of a project schedule for implementing a risk response

C.

Completion of a project for implementing a new control

D.

Engagement of a third party to conduct a vulnerability scan

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Question # 196

Which of the following is the MOST effective way for a large and diversified organization to minimize risk associated with unauthorized software on company devices?

A.

Scan end points for applications not included in the asset inventory.

B.

Prohibit the use of cloud-based virtual desktop software.

C.

Conduct frequent reviews of software licenses.

D.

Perform frequent internal audits of enterprise IT infrastructure.

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Question # 197

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST recommendation upon learning that an employee inadvertently disclosed sensitive data to a vendor?

A.

Enroll the employee in additional security training.

B.

Invoke the incident response plan.

C.

Conduct an internal audit.

D.

Instruct the vendor to delete the data.

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Question # 198

An organization has agreed to a 99% availability for its online services and will not accept availability that falls below 98.5%. This is an example of:

A.

risk mitigation.

B.

risk evaluation.

C.

risk appetite.

D.

risk tolerance.

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Question # 199

The following is the snapshot of a recently approved IT risk register maintained by an organization's information security department.

After implementing countermeasures listed in ‘’Risk Response Descriptions’’ for each of the Risk IDs, which of the following component of the register MUST change?

A.

Risk Impact Rating

B.

Risk Owner

C.

Risk Likelihood Rating

D.

Risk Exposure

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Question # 200

Senior management is deciding whether to share confidential data with the organization's business partners. The BEST course of action for a risk practitioner would be to submit a report to senior management containing the:

A.

possible risk and suggested mitigation plans.

B.

design of controls to encrypt the data to be shared.

C.

project plan for classification of the data.

D.

summary of data protection and privacy legislation.

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Question # 201

Which of the following is the MOST effective way 10 identify an application backdoor prior to implementation'?

A.

User acceptance testing (UAT)

B.

Database activity monitoring

C.

Source code review

D.

Vulnerability analysis

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Question # 202

Which of the following is MOST important when conducting a post-implementation review as part of the system development life cycle (SDLC)?

A.

Verifying that project objectives are met

B.

Identifying project cost overruns

C.

Leveraging an independent review team

D.

Reviewing the project initiation risk matrix

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Question # 203

Which of the following provides the MOST reliable evidence of a control's effectiveness?

A.

A risk and control self-assessment

B.

Senior management's attestation

C.

A system-generated testing report

D.

detailed process walk-through

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Question # 204

Which of the following is the MOST important information to cover a business continuity awareness Ira nine, program for all employees of the organization?

A.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs)

B.

Segregation of duties

C.

Communication plan

D.

Critical asset inventory

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Question # 205

A risk practitioner has identified that the agreed recovery time objective (RTO) with a Software as a Service (SaaS) provider is longer than the business expectation. Which ot the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Collaborate with the risk owner to determine the risk response plan.

B.

Document the gap in the risk register and report to senior management.

C.

Include a right to audit clause in the service provider contract.

D.

Advise the risk owner to accept the risk.

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Question # 206

When developing risk scenario using a list of generic scenarios based on industry best practices, it is MOST imported to:

A.

Assess generic risk scenarios with business users.

B.

Validate the generic risk scenarios for relevance.

C.

Select the maximum possible risk scenarios from the list.

D.

Identify common threats causing generic risk scenarios

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Question # 207

Of the following, who is BEST suited to assist a risk practitioner in developing a relevant set of risk scenarios?

A.

Internal auditor

B.

Asset owner

C.

Finance manager

D.

Control owner

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Question # 208

Which of the following should be of MOST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing an organization risk register after the completion of a series of risk assessments?

A.

Several risk action plans have missed target completion dates.

B.

Senior management has accepted more risk than usual.

C.

Risk associated with many assets is only expressed in qualitative terms.

D.

Many risk scenarios are owned by the same senior manager.

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Question # 209

A recent big data project has resulted in the creation of an application used to support important investment decisions. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to the risk practitioner?

A.

Data quality

B.

Maintenance costs

C.

Data redundancy

D.

System integration

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Question # 210

A risk practitioner recently discovered that personal information from the production environment is required for testing purposes in non-production environments. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to address this situation?

A.

Enable data encryption in the test environment.

B.

Prevent the use of production data in the test environment

C.

De-identify data before being transferred to the test environment.

D.

Enforce multi-factor authentication within the test environment.

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Question # 211

Which of the following issues found during the review of a newly created disaster recovery plan (DRP) should be of MOST concern?

A.

Some critical business applications are not included in the plan

B.

Several recovery activities will be outsourced

C.

The plan is not based on an internationally recognized framework

D.

The chief information security officer (CISO) has not approved the plan

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Question # 212

Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to managing an organization's end-user devices?

A.

Incomplete end-user device inventory

B.

Unsupported end-user applications

C.

Incompatible end-user devices

D.

Multiple end-user device models

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Question # 213

A control process has been implemented in response to a new regulatory requirement, but has significantly reduced productivity. Which of the following is the BEST way to resolve this concern?

A.

Absorb the loss in productivity.

B.

Request a waiver to the requirements.

C.

Escalate the issue to senior management

D.

Remove the control to accommodate business objectives.

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Question # 214

Which of the blowing is MOST important when implementing an organization s security policy?

A.

Obtaining management support

B.

Benchmarking against industry standards

C.

Assessing compliance requirements

D.

Identifying threats and vulnerabilities

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Question # 215

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure adequate resources will be allocated to manage identified risk?

A.

Prioritizing risk within each business unit

B.

Reviewing risk ranking methodology

C.

Promoting an organizational culture of risk awareness

D.

Assigning risk ownership to appropriate roles

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Question # 216

A MAJOR advantage of using key risk indicators (KRis) is that (hey

A.

identify when risk exceeds defined thresholds

B.

assess risk scenarios that exceed defined thresholds

C.

identify scenarios that exceed defined risk appetite

D.

help with internal control assessments concerning risk appellate

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Question # 217

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure the continued effectiveness of the IT risk management function within an organization experiencing high employee turnover?

A.

Well documented policies and procedures

B.

Risk and issue tracking

C.

An IT strategy committee

D.

Change and release management

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Question # 218

Which of the following BEST enables a risk practitioner to understand management's approach to organizational risk?

A.

Organizational structure and job descriptions

B.

Risk appetite and risk tolerance

C.

Industry best practices for risk management

D.

Prior year's risk assessment results

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Question # 219

Which of the following situations presents the GREATEST challenge to creating a comprehensive IT risk profile of an organization?

A.

Manual vulnerability scanning processes

B.

Organizational reliance on third-party service providers

C.

Inaccurate documentation of enterprise architecture (EA)

D.

Risk-averse organizational risk appetite

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Question # 220

Which of the following is the MOST important step to ensure regulatory requirements are adequately addressed within an organization?

A.

Obtain necessary resources to address regulatory requirements

B.

Develop a policy framework that addresses regulatory requirements

C.

Perform a gap analysis against regulatory requirements.

D.

Employ IT solutions that meet regulatory requirements.

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Question # 221

An organization is adopting block chain for a new financial system. Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern for a risk practitioner evaluating the system's production readiness?

A.

Limited organizational knowledge of the underlying technology

B.

Lack of commercial software support

C.

Varying costs related to implementation and maintenance

D.

Slow adoption of the technology across the financial industry

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Question # 222

Which of the following is the BEST method to mitigate the risk of an unauthorized employee viewing confidential data in a database''

A.

Implement role-based access control

B.

Implement a data masking process

C.

Include sanctions in nondisclosure agreements (NDAs)

D.

Install a data loss prevention (DLP) tool

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Question # 223

Of the following, who is responsible for approval when a change in an application system is ready for release to production?

A.

Information security officer

B.

IT risk manager

C.

Business owner

D.

Chief risk officer (CRO)

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Question # 224

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of establishing an organization's risk tolerance and appetite?

A.

To align with board reporting requirements

B.

To assist management in decision making

C.

To create organization-wide risk awareness

D.

To minimize risk mitigation efforts

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Question # 225

Which of the following is the BEST way to protect sensitive data from administrators within a public cloud?

A.

Use an encrypted tunnel lo connect to the cloud.

B.

Encrypt the data in the cloud database.

C.

Encrypt physical hard drives within the cloud.

D.

Encrypt data before it leaves the organization.

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Question # 226

Which of the following scenarios presents the GREATEST risk of noncompliance with data privacy best practices?

A.

Making data available to a larger audience of customers

B.

Data not being disposed according to the retention policy

C.

Personal data not being de-identified properly

D.

Data being used for purposes the data subjects have not opted into

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Question # 227

Which of the following BEST enables the timely detection of changes in the security control environment?

A.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

B.

Log analysis

C.

Security control reviews

D.

Random sampling checks

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Question # 228

A risk practitioner notes control design changes when comparing risk response to a previously approved action plan. Which of the following is MOST important for the practitioner to confirm?

A.

Appropriate approvals for the control changes

B.

The reason the action plan was modified

C.

The risk owner's approval of the revised action plan

D.

The effectiveness of the resulting control

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Question # 229

An organization has established workflows in its service desk to support employee reports of security-related concerns. Which of the following is the MOST efficient approach to analyze these concerns?

A.

Map concerns to organizational assets.

B.

Sort concerns by likelihood.

C.

Align concerns to key vendors.

D.

Prioritize concerns based on frequency of reports.

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Question # 230

Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to address recent IT risk trends that indicate social engineering attempts are increasing in the organization?

A.

Conduct a simulated phishing attack.

B.

Update spam filters

C.

Revise the acceptable use policy

D.

Strengthen disciplinary procedures

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Question # 231

After undertaking a risk assessment of a production system, the MOST appropriate action is fcr the risk manager to

A.

recommend a program that minimizes the concerns of that production system.

B.

inform the process owner of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.

C.

inform the IT manager of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.

D.

inform the development team of the concerns and together formulate risk reduction measures.

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Question # 232

Which of the following is the result of a realized risk scenario?

A.

Threat event

B.

Vulnerability event

C.

Technical event

D.

Loss event

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Question # 233

The PRIMARY reason for communicating risk assessment results to data owners is to enable the:

A.

design of appropriate controls.

B.

industry benchmarking of controls.

C.

prioritization of response efforts.

D.

classification of information assets.

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Question # 234

Which of the following BEST prevents control gaps in the Zero Trust model when implementing in the environment?

A.

Relying on multiple solutions for Zero Trust

B.

Utilizing rapid development during implementation

C.

Establishing a robust technical architecture

D.

Starting with a large initial scope

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Question # 235

Which of the following is the BEST control for a large organization to implement to effectively mitigate risk related to fraudulent transactions?

A.

Segregation of duties

B.

Monetary approval limits

C.

Clear roles and responsibilities

D.

Password policies

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Question # 236

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the ability to deliver uninterrupted IT services?

A.

Mean time between failures (MTBF)

B.

Mean time to recover (MTTR)

C.

Planned downtime

D.

Unplanned downtime

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Question # 237

Which of the following is MOST important to ensure risk management practices are effective at all levels within the organization?

A.

Communicating risk awareness materials regularly

B.

Establishing key risk indicators (KRIs) to monitor risk management processes

C.

Ensuring that business activities minimize inherent risk

D.

Embedding risk management in business activities

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Question # 238

An organization is moving its critical assets to the cloud. Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) to include in the service level agreement (SLA)?

A.

Percentage of standard supplier uptime

B.

Average time to respond to incidents

C.

Number of assets included in recovery processes

D.

Number of key applications hosted

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Question # 239

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to ensure policies and standards are properly documented within the risk management process?

A.

It facilitates the use of a framework for risk management.

B.

It establishes a means for senior management to formally approve risk practices.

C.

It encourages risk-based decision making for stakeholders.

D.

It provides a basis for benchmarking against industry standards.

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Question # 240

Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) for monitoring the user access management process?

A.

Proportion of end users having more than one account

B.

Percentage of accounts disabled within the service level agreement (SLA)

C.

Proportion of privileged to non-privileged accounts

D.

Percentage of accounts that have not been activated

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Question # 241

When creating a separate IT risk register for a large organization, which of the following is MOST important to consider with regard to the existing corporate risk 'register?

A.

Leveraging business risk professionals

B.

Relying on generic IT risk scenarios

C.

Describing IT risk in business terms

D.

Using a common risk taxonomy

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Question # 242

Which of the following offers the SIMPLEST overview of changes in an organization's risk profile?

A.

A risk roadmap

B.

A balanced scorecard

C.

A heat map

D.

The risk register

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Question # 243

Which of the following is the MOST significant indicator of the need to perform a penetration test?

A.

An increase in the number of high-risk audit findings

B.

An increase in the number of security incidents

C.

An increase in the percentage of turnover in IT personnel

D.

An increase in the number of infrastructure changes

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Question # 244

Which of the following is the MOST important characteristic of a key risk indicator (KRI) to enable decision-making?

A.

Monitoring the risk until the exposure is reduced

B.

Setting minimum sample sizes to ensure accuracy

C.

Listing alternative causes for risk events

D.

Illustrating changes in risk trends

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Question # 245

An organization is developing a risk universe to create a holistic view of its overall risk profile. Which of the following is the GREATEST barrier to achieving the initiative's objectives?

A.

Lack of cross-functional risk assessment workshops within the organization

B.

Lack of common understanding of the organization's risk culture

C.

Lack of quantitative methods to aggregate the total risk exposure

D.

Lack of an integrated risk management system to aggregate risk scenarios

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Question # 246

A risk practitioner discovers that an IT operations team manager bypassed web filtering controls by using a mobile device, in violation of the network security policy. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

A.

Report the incident.

B.

Plan a security awareness session.

C.

Assess the new risk.

D.

Update the risk register.

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Question # 247

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to restrict access to the risk register on a need-to-know basis?

A.

It contains vulnerabilities and threats.

B.

The risk methodology is intellectual property.

C.

Contents may be used as auditable findings.

D.

Risk scenarios may be misinterpreted.

Full Access
Question # 248

Which of the following BEST enables detection of ethical violations committed by employees?

A.

Transaction log monitoring

B.

Whistleblower program

C.

Access control attestation

D.

Periodic job rotation

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Question # 249

An assessment of information security controls has identified ineffective controls. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

A.

Determine whether the impact is outside the risk appetite.

B.

Report the ineffective control for inclusion in the next audit report.

C.

Request a formal acceptance of risk from senior management.

D.

Deploy a compensating control to address the identified deficiencies.

Full Access
Question # 250

A hospital recently implemented a new technology to allow virtual patient appointments. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

A.

Reassess the risk profile.

B.

Modify the risk taxonomy.

C.

Increase the risk tolerance.

D.

Review the risk culture.

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Question # 251

Which of the following is the BEST response when a potential IT control deficiency has been identified?

A.

Remediate and report the deficiency to the enterprise risk committee.

B.

Verify the deficiency and then notify the business process owner.

C.

Verify the deficiency and then notify internal audit.

D.

Remediate and report the deficiency to senior executive management.

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Question # 252

Which of the following will BEST help to improve an organization's risk culture?

A.

Maintaining a documented risk register

B.

Establishing a risk awareness program

C.

Rewarding employees for reporting security incidents

D.

Allocating resources for risk remediation

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Question # 253

An organization has updated its acceptable use policy to mitigate the risk of employees disclosing confidential information. Which of the following is the BEST way to reinforce the effectiveness of this policy?

A.

Communicate sanctions for policy violations to all staff.

B.

Obtain signed acceptance of the new policy from employees.

C.

Train all staff on relevant information security best practices.

D.

Implement data loss prevention (DLP) within the corporate network.

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Question # 254

Reviewing which of the following would provide the MOST useful information when preparing to evaluate the effectiveness of existing controls?

A.

Previous audit reports

B.

Control objectives

C.

Risk responses in the risk register

D.

Changes in risk profiles

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Question # 255

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with inappropriate classification of data?

A.

Inaccurate record management data

B.

Users having unauthorized access to data

C.

Inaccurate recovery time objectives (RTOs)

D.

Lack of accountability for data ownership

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Question # 256

A risk practitioner has been asked to evaluate the adoption of a third-party blockchain integration platform based on the value added by the platform and the organization's risk appetite. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Conduct a risk assessment with stakeholders.

B.

Conduct third-party resilience tests.

C.

Update the risk register with the process changes.

D.

Review risk related to standards and regulations.

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Question # 257

Which of the following is the BEST way to reduce the likelihood of an individual performing a potentially harmful action as the result of unnecessary entitlement?

A.

Application monitoring

B.

Separation of duty

C.

Least privilege

D.

Nonrepudiation

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Question # 258

Which of the following BEST mitigates ethical risk?

A.

Ethics committees

B.

Contingency scenarios

C.

Awareness of consequences for violations

D.

Routine changes in senior management

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Question # 259

A key risk indicator (KRI) that incorporates data from external open-source threat intelligence sources has shown changes in risk trend data. Which of the following is MOST important to update in the risk register?

A.

Impact of risk occurrence

B.

Frequency of risk occurrence

C.

Cost of risk response

D.

Legal aspects of risk realization

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Question # 260

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to communicate control effectiveness to senior management?

A.

To demonstrate alignment with industry best practices

B.

To assure management that control ownership is assigned

C.

To ensure management understands the current risk status

D.

To align risk management with strategic objectives

Full Access
Question # 261

An assessment of information security controls has identified ineffective controls. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

A.

Determine whether the impact is outside the risk appetite.

B.

Request a formal acceptance of risk from senior management.

C.

Report the ineffective control for inclusion in the next audit report.

D.

Deploy a compensating control to address the identified deficiencies.

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Question # 262

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of integrating risk and security requirements in an organization's enterprise architecture (EA)?

A.

Adherence to legal and compliance requirements

B.

Reduction in the number of test cases in the acceptance phase

C.

Establishment of digital forensic architectures

D.

Consistent management of information assets

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Question # 263

A penetration test reveals several vulnerabilities in a web-facing application. Which of the following should be the FIRST step in selecting a risk response?

A.

Correct the vulnerabilities to mitigate potential risk exposure.

B.

Develop a risk response action plan with key stakeholders.

C.

Assess the level of risk associated with the vulnerabilities.

D.

Communicate the vulnerabilities to the risk owner.

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Question # 264

A risk practitioner's BEST guidance to help an organization develop relevant risk scenarios is to ensure the scenarios are:

A.

based on industry trends.

B.

mapped to incident response plans.

C.

related to probable events.

D.

aligned with risk management capabilities.

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Question # 265

Which of the following is MOST useful for measuring the existing risk management process against a desired state?

A.

Balanced scorecard

B.

Risk management framework

C.

Capability maturity model

D.

Risk scenario analysis

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Question # 266

Which of the following provides the MOST useful input to the development of realistic risk scenarios?

A.

Balanced scorecard

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk map

D.

Risk events

Full Access
Question # 267

The percentage of unpatched systems is a:

A.

threat vector.

B.

critical success factor (CSF).

C.

key performance indicator (KPI).

D.

key risk indicator (KRI).

Full Access
Question # 268

An organization has outsourced its backup and recovery procedures to a third-party cloud provider. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's NEXT course of action?

A.

Remove the associated risk from the register.

B.

Validate control effectiveness and update the risk register.

C.

Review the contract and service level agreements (SLAs).

D.

Obtain an assurance report from the third-party provider.

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Question # 269

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when assessing the risk of using Internet of Things (loT) devices to collect and process personally identifiable information (PII)?

A.

Business strategies and needs

B.

Security features and support

C.

Costs and benefits

D.

Local laws and regulations

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Question # 270

Which of the following BEST helps to mitigate risk associated with excessive access by authorized users?

A.

Monitoring user activity using security logs

B.

Revoking access for users changing roles

C.

Granting access based on least privilege

D.

Conducting periodic reviews of authorizations granted

Full Access
Question # 271

Which of the following information is MOST useful to a risk practitioner for developing IT risk scenarios?

A.

Published vulnerabilities relevant to the business

B.

Threat actors that can trigger events

C.

Events that could potentially impact the business

D.

IT assets requiring the greatest investment

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Question # 272

The PRIMARY benefit of conducting a risk workshop using a top-down approach instead of a bottom-up approach is the ability to:

A.

identify specific project risk.

B.

obtain a holistic view of IT strategy risk.

C.

understand risk associated with complex processes.

D.

incorporate subject matter expertise.

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Question # 273

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for an organization to include an acceptable use banner when users log in?

A.

To reduce the likelihood of insider threat

B.

To eliminate the possibility of insider threat

C.

To enable rapid discovery of insider threat

D.

To reduce the impact of insider threat

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Question # 274

What would be MOST helpful to ensuring the effective implementation of a new cybersecurity program?

A.

Creating metrics to report the number of security incidents

B.

Hiring subject matter experts for the program

C.

Establishing a budget for additional resources

D.

Assigning clear ownership of the program

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Question # 275

Which of the following process controls BEST mitigates the risk of an employee issuing fraudulent payments to a vendor?

A.

Performing credit verification of third-party vendors prior to payment

B.

Conducting system access reviews to ensure least privilege and appropriate access

C.

Performing regular reconciliation of payments to the check registers

D.

Enforcing segregation of duties between the vendor master file and invoicing

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Question # 276

An organization operates in an environment where the impact of ransomware attacks is high, with a low likelihood. After quantifying the impact of the risk associated with ransomware attacks exceeds the organization's risk appetite and tolerance, which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation?

A.

Obtain adequate cybersecurity insurance coverage.

B.

Ensure business continuity assessments are up to date.

C.

Adjust the organization's risk appetite and tolerance.

D.

Obtain certification to a global information security standard.

Full Access
Question # 277

Which of the following would present the GREATEST challenge for a risk practitioner during a merger of two organizations?

A.

Variances between organizational risk appetites

B.

Different taxonomies to categorize risk scenarios

C.

Disparate platforms for governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) systems

D.

Dissimilar organizational risk acceptance protocols

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Question # 278

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of having a mature enterprise architecture (EA) in place?

A.

Standards-based policies

B.

Audit readiness

C.

Efficient operations

D.

Regulatory compliance

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Question # 279

When outsourcing a business process to a cloud service provider, it is MOST important to understand that:

A.

insurance could be acquired for the risk associated with the outsourced process.

B.

service accountability remains with the cloud service provider.

C.

a risk owner must be designated within the cloud service provider.

D.

accountability for the risk will remain with the organization.

Full Access
Question # 280

An organization has been experiencing an increasing number of spear phishing attacks Which of the following would be the MOST effective way to mitigate the risk associated with these attacks?

A.

Update firewall configuration

B.

Require strong password complexity

C.

implement a security awareness program

D.

Implement two-factor authentication

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Question # 281

An online payment processor would be severely impacted if the fraud detection system has an outage. Which of the following is the BEST way to address this risk?

A.

Implement continuous control monitoring.

B.

Communicate the risk to management.

C.

Introduce recovery control procedures.

D.

Document a risk response plan.

Full Access
Question # 282

Which of the following BEST enables a risk practitioner to identify the consequences of losing critical resources due to a disaster?

A.

Risk management action plans

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

What-if technique

D.

Tabletop exercise results

Full Access
Question # 283

Which of the following is BEST used to aggregate data from multiple systems to identify abnormal behavior?

A.

Cyber threat intelligence

B.

Anti-malware software

C.

Endpoint detection and response (EDR)

D.

SIEM systems

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Question # 284

An incentive program is MOST likely implemented to manage the risk associated with loss of which organizational asset?

A.

Employees

B.

Data

C.

Reputation

D.

Customer lists

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Question # 285

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that robust risk management practices are in place within an organization?

A.

Regularly updated risk management procedures

B.

A management-approved risk dashboard

C.

A current control framework

D.

A regularly updated risk register

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Question # 286

Of the following, who is accountable for ensuing the effectiveness of a control to mitigate risk?

A.

Control owner

B.

Risk manager

C.

Control operator

D.

Risk treatment owner

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Question # 287

The risk to an organization's reputation due to a recent cybersecurity breach is PRIMARILY considered to be:

A.

financial risk.

B.

data risk.

C.

operational risk.

D.

strategic risk.

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Question # 288

A risk practitioner has just learned about new malware that has severely impacted industry peers worldwide data loss?

A.

Customer database manager

B.

Customer data custodian

C.

Data privacy officer

D.

Audit committee

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Question # 289

Which of the following BEST mitigates the risk of violating privacy laws when transferring personal information lo a supplier?

A.

Encrypt the data while in transit lo the supplier

B.

Contractually obligate the supplier to follow privacy laws.

C.

Require independent audits of the supplier's control environment

D.

Utilize blockchain during the data transfer

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Question # 290

A change management process has recently been updated with new testing procedures. What is the NEXT course of action?

A.

Monitor processes to ensure recent updates are being followed.

B.

Communicate to those who test and promote changes.

C.

Conduct a cost-benefit analysis to justify the cost of the control.

D.

Assess the maturity of the change management process.

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Question # 291

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of a risk owner once a decision is made to mitigate a risk?

A.

Updating the risk register to include the risk mitigation plan

B.

Determining processes for monitoring the effectiveness of the controls

C.

Ensuring that control design reduces risk to an acceptable level

D.

Confirming to management the controls reduce the likelihood of the risk

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Question # 292

The MOST important consideration when selecting a control to mitigate an identified risk is whether:

A.

the cost of control exceeds the mitigation value

B.

there are sufficient internal resources to implement the control

C.

the mitigation measures create compounding effects

D.

the control eliminates the risk

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Question # 293

Which of the following is the BEST evidence that a user account has been properly authorized?

A.

An email from the user accepting the account

B.

Notification from human resources that the account is active

C.

User privileges matching the request form

D.

Formal approval of the account by the user's manager

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Question # 294

A business unit is implementing a data analytics platform to enhance its customer relationship management (CRM) system primarily to process data that has been provided by its customers. Which of the following presents the GREATEST risk to the organization's reputation?

A.

Third-party software is used for data analytics.

B.

Data usage exceeds individual consent.

C.

Revenue generated is not disclosed to customers.

D.

Use of a data analytics system is not disclosed to customers.

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Question # 295

When formulating a social media policy lo address information leakage, which of the following is the MOST important concern to address?

A.

Sharing company information on social media

B.

Sharing personal information on social media

C.

Using social media to maintain contact with business associates

D.

Using social media for personal purposes during working hours

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Question # 296

Which of the following is the GREATEST advantage of implementing a risk management program?

A.

Enabling risk-aware decisions

B.

Promoting a risk-aware culture

C.

Improving security governance

D.

Reducing residual risk

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Question # 297

A risk practitioner has received an updated enterprise risk management (ERM) report showing that residual risk is now within the organization's defined appetite and tolerance levels. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Identify new risk entries to include in ERM.

B.

Remove the risk entries from the ERM register.

C.

Re-perform the risk assessment to confirm results.

D.

Verify the adequacy of risk monitoring plans.

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Question # 298

From a risk management perspective, the PRIMARY objective of using maturity models is to enable:

A.

solution delivery.

B.

resource utilization.

C.

strategic alignment.

D.

performance evaluation.

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Question # 299

A risk practitioner has discovered a deficiency in a critical system that cannot be patched. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

A.

Report the issue to internal audit.

B.

Submit a request to change management.

C.

Conduct a risk assessment.

D.

Review the business impact assessment.

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Question # 300

Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate the risk to IT infrastructure availability?

A.

Establishing a disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Establishing recovery time objectives (RTOs)

C.

Maintaining a current list of staff contact delays

D.

Maintaining a risk register

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Question # 301

Which of the following approaches would BEST help to identify relevant risk scenarios?

A.

Engage line management in risk assessment workshops.

B.

Escalate the situation to risk leadership.

C.

Engage internal audit for risk assessment workshops.

D.

Review system and process documentation.

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Question # 302

Print jobs containing confidential information are sent to a shared network printer located in a secure room. Which of the following is the BEST control to prevent the inappropriate disclosure of confidential information?

A.

Requiring a printer access code for each user

B.

Using physical controls to access the printer room

C.

Using video surveillance in the printer room

D.

Ensuring printer parameters are properly configured

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Question # 303

To reduce costs, an organization is combining the second and third tines of defense in a new department that reports to a recently appointed C-level executive. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern with this situation?

A.

The risk governance approach of the second and third lines of defense may differ.

B.

The independence of the internal third line of defense may be compromised.

C.

Cost reductions may negatively impact the productivity of other departments.

D.

The new structure is not aligned to the organization's internal control framework.

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Question # 304

Which of the following is the PRIMARY risk management responsibility of the second line of defense?

A.

Monitoring risk responses

B.

Applying risk treatments

C.

Providing assurance of control effectiveness

D.

Implementing internal controls

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Question # 305

Which of the following is MOST important to the successful development of IT risk scenarios?

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Internal and external audit reports

C.

Threat and vulnerability analysis

D.

Control effectiveness assessment

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Question # 306

Which of the following should be included in a risk scenario to be used for risk analysis?

A.

Risk appetite

B.

Threat type

C.

Risk tolerance

D.

Residual risk

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Question # 307

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of providing an aggregated view of IT risk to business management?

A.

To enable consistent data on risk to be obtained

B.

To allow for proper review of risk tolerance

C.

To identify dependencies for reporting risk

D.

To provide consistent and clear terminology

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Question # 308

Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action when an organization plans to adopt a cloud computing strategy?

A.

Request a budget for implementation

B.

Conduct a threat analysis.

C.

Create a cloud computing policy.

D.

Perform a controls assessment.

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Question # 309

Which of the following trends would cause the GREATEST concern regarding the effectiveness of an organization's user access control processes? An increase in the:

A.

ratio of disabled to active user accounts.

B.

percentage of users with multiple user accounts.

C.

average number of access entitlements per user account.

D.

average time between user transfers and access updates.

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Question # 310

Which of the following data would be used when performing a business impact analysis (BIA)?

A.

Cost-benefit analysis of running the current business

B.

Cost of regulatory compliance

C.

Projected impact of current business on future business

D.

Expected costs for recovering the business

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Question # 311

The BEST way to determine the likelihood of a system availability risk scenario is by assessing the:

A.

availability of fault tolerant software.

B.

strategic plan for business growth.

C.

vulnerability scan results of critical systems.

D.

redundancy of technical infrastructure.

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Question # 312

When of the following 15 MOST important when developing a business case for a proposed security investment?

A.

identification of control requirements

B.

Alignment to business objectives

C.

Consideration of new business strategies

D.

inclusion of strategy for regulatory compliance

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Question # 313

An internal audit report reveals that not all IT application databases have encryption in place. Which of the following information would be MOST important for assessing the risk impact?

A.

The number of users who can access sensitive data

B.

A list of unencrypted databases which contain sensitive data

C.

The reason some databases have not been encrypted

D.

The cost required to enforce encryption

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Question # 314

The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a backup process would be the number of:

A.

resources to monitor backups

B.

restoration monitoring reports

C.

backup recovery requests

D.

recurring restore failures

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Question # 315

To minimize the risk of a potential acquisition being exposed externally, an organization has selected a few key employees to be engaged in the due diligence process. A member of the due diligence team realizes a close acquaintance is a high-ranking IT professional at a subsidiary of the company about to be acquired. What is the BEST course of action for this team member?

A.

Enforce segregation of duties.

B.

Disclose potential conflicts of interest.

C.

Delegate responsibilities involving the acquaintance.

D.

Notify the subsidiary's legal team.

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Question # 316

Which element of an organization's risk register is MOST important to update following the commissioning of a new financial reporting system?

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

The owner of the financial reporting process

C.

The risk rating of affected financial processes

D.

The list of relevant financial controls

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Question # 317

Which of the following controls are BEST strengthened by a clear organizational code of ethics?

A.

Detective controls

B.

Administrative controls

C.

Technical controls

D.

Preventive controls

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Question # 318

The PRIMARY benefit of using a maturity model is that it helps to evaluate the:

A.

capability to implement new processes

B.

evolution of process improvements

C.

degree of compliance with policies and procedures

D.

control requirements.

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Question # 319

During implementation of an intrusion detection system (IDS) to monitor network traffic, a high number of alerts is reported. The risk practitioner should recommend to:

A.

reset the alert threshold based on peak traffic

B.

analyze the traffic to minimize the false negatives

C.

analyze the alerts to minimize the false positives

D.

sniff the traffic using a network analyzer

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Question # 320

When developing a risk awareness training program, which of the following training topics would BEST facilitate a thorough understanding of risk scenarios?

A.

Mapping threats to organizational objectives

B.

Reviewing past audits

C.

Analyzing key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

Identifying potential sources of risk

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Question # 321

Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration when a business unit wants to use personal information for a purpose other than for which it was originally collected?

A.

Informed consent

B.

Cross border controls

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Data breach protection

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Question # 322

Which of the following is the MOST effective control to maintain the integrity of system configuration files?

A.

Recording changes to configuration files

B.

Implementing automated vulnerability scanning

C.

Restricting access to configuration documentation

D.

Monitoring against the configuration standard

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Question # 323

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to have the risk management process reviewed by a third party?

A.

Obtain objective assessment of the control environment.

B.

Ensure the risk profile is defined and communicated.

C.

Validate the threat management process.

D.

Obtain an objective view of process gaps and systemic errors.

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Question # 324

Which of the following should be management's PRIMARY consideration when approving risk response action plans?

A.

Ability of the action plans to address multiple risk scenarios

B.

Ease of implementing the risk treatment solution

C.

Changes in residual risk after implementing the plans

D.

Prioritization for implementing the action plans

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Question # 325

The PRIMARY benefit associated with key risk indicators (KRls) is that they:

A.

help an organization identify emerging threats.

B.

benchmark the organization's risk profile.

C.

identify trends in the organization's vulnerabilities.

D.

enable ongoing monitoring of emerging risk.

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Question # 326

Who should be PRIMARILY responsible for establishing an organization's IT risk culture?

A.

Business process owner

B.

Executive management

C.

Risk management

D.

IT management

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Question # 327

Employees are repeatedly seen holding the door open for others, so that trailing employees do not have to stop and swipe their own ID badges. This behavior BEST represents:

A.

a threat.

B.

a vulnerability.

C.

an impact

D.

a control.

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Question # 328

Which of the following is the BEST source for identifying key control indicators (KCIs)?

A.

Privileged user activity monitoring controls

B.

Controls mapped to organizational risk scenarios

C.

Recent audit findings of control weaknesses

D.

A list of critical security processes

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Question # 329

Which of the following should be considered when selecting a risk response?

A.

Risk scenarios analysis

B.

Risk response costs

C.

Risk factor awareness

D.

Risk factor identification

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Question # 330

The PRIMARY purpose of IT control status reporting is to:

A.

ensure compliance with IT governance strategy.

B.

assist internal audit in evaluating and initiating remediation efforts.

C.

benchmark IT controls with Industry standards.

D.

facilitate the comparison of the current and desired states.

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Question # 331

Which of the following is the BEST way to confirm whether appropriate automated controls are in place within a recently implemented system?

A.

Perform a post-implementation review.

B.

Conduct user acceptance testing.

C.

Review the key performance indicators (KPIs).

D.

Interview process owners.

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Question # 332

Which of the following is MOST appropriate to prevent unauthorized retrieval of confidential information stored in a business application system?

A.

Implement segregation of duties.

B.

Enforce an internal data access policy.

C.

Enforce the use of digital signatures.

D.

Apply single sign-on for access control.

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Question # 333

Which of the following would be MOST useful to senior management when determining an appropriate risk response?

A.

A comparison of current risk levels with established tolerance

B.

A comparison of cost variance with defined response strategies

C.

A comparison of current risk levels with estimated inherent risk levels

D.

A comparison of accepted risk scenarios associated with regulatory compliance

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Question # 334

Which of the following would BEST indicate to senior management that IT processes are improving?

A.

Changes in the number of intrusions detected

B.

Changes in the number of security exceptions

C.

Changes in the position in the maturity model

D.

Changes to the structure of the risk register

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Question # 335

Which of the following provides the MOST up-to-date information about the effectiveness of an organization's overall IT control environment?

A.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

B.

Risk heat maps

C.

Internal audit findings

D.

Periodic penetration testing

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Question # 336

An organization recently received an independent security audit report of its cloud service provider that indicates significant control weaknesses. What should be done NEXT in response to this report?

A.

Migrate all data to another compliant service provider.

B.

Analyze the impact of the provider's control weaknesses to the business.

C.

Conduct a follow-up audit to verify the provider's control weaknesses.

D.

Review the contract to determine if penalties should be levied against the provider.

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Question # 337

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of an antivirus program?

A.

Percentage of IT assets with current malware definitions

B.

Number of false positives defected over a period of time

C.

Number of alerts generated by the anti-virus software

D.

Frequency of anti-vinjs software updates

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Question # 338

Which of the following scenarios represents a threat?

A.

Connecting a laptop to a free, open, wireless access point (hotspot)

B.

Visitors not signing in as per policy

C.

Storing corporate data in unencrypted form on a laptop

D.

A virus transmitted on a USB thumb drive

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Question # 339

What is the BEST information to present to business control owners when justifying costs related to controls?

A.

Loss event frequency and magnitude

B.

The previous year's budget and actuals

C.

Industry benchmarks and standards

D.

Return on IT security-related investments

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Question # 340

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when sharing risk management updates with executive management?

A.

Using an aggregated view of organizational risk

B.

Ensuring relevance to organizational goals

C.

Relying on key risk indicator (KRI) data Including

D.

Trend analysis of risk metrics

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Question # 341

Risk management strategies are PRIMARILY adopted to:

A.

take necessary precautions for claims and losses.

B.

achieve acceptable residual risk levels.

C.

avoid risk for business and IT assets.

D.

achieve compliance with legal requirements.

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Question # 342

Which of the following is the MOST important element of a successful risk awareness training program?

A.

Customizing content for the audience

B.

Providing incentives to participants

C.

Mapping to a recognized standard

D.

Providing metrics for measurement

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Question # 343

The analysis of which of the following will BEST help validate whether suspicious network activity is malicious?

A.

Logs and system events

B.

Intrusion detection system (IDS) rules

C.

Vulnerability assessment reports

D.

Penetration test reports

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Question # 344

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

A.

Number of users that participated in the DRP testing

B.

Number of issues identified during DRP testing

C.

Percentage of applications that met the RTO during DRP testing

D.

Percentage of issues resolved as a result of DRP testing

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Question # 345

Which of the following will BEST help mitigate the risk associated with malicious functionality in outsourced application development?

A.

Perform an m-depth code review with an expert

B.

Validate functionality by running in a test environment

C.

Implement a service level agreement.

D.

Utilize the change management process.

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Question # 346

Which of the following is the MOST important benefit of key risk indicators (KRIs)'

A.

Assisting in continually optimizing risk governance

B.

Enabling the documentation and analysis of trends

C.

Ensuring compliance with regulatory requirements

D.

Providing an early warning to take proactive actions

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Question # 347

Which of the following is of GREATEST concern when uncontrolled changes are made to the control environment?

A.

A decrease in control layering effectiveness

B.

An increase in inherent risk

C.

An increase in control vulnerabilities

D.

An increase in the level of residual risk

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Question # 348

A risk practitioner has identified that the organization's secondary data center does not provide redundancy for a critical application. Who should have the authority to accept the associated risk?

A.

Business continuity director

B.

Disaster recovery manager

C.

Business application owner

D.

Data center manager

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Question # 349

Which of the following is the MOST effective key performance indicator (KPI) for change management?

A.

Percentage of changes with a fallback plan

B.

Number of changes implemented

C.

Percentage of successful changes

D.

Average time required to implement a change

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Question # 350

Which of the following will BEST mitigate the risk associated with IT and business misalignment?

A.

Establishing business key performance indicators (KPIs)

B.

Introducing an established framework for IT architecture

C.

Establishing key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

Involving the business process owner in IT strategy

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Question # 351

An organization that has been the subject of multiple social engineering attacks is developing a risk awareness program. The PRIMARY goal of this program should be to:

A.

reduce the risk to an acceptable level.

B.

communicate the consequences for violations.

C.

implement industry best practices.

D.

reduce the organization's risk appetite

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Question # 352

A trusted third-party service provider has determined that the risk of a client's systems being hacked is low. Which of the following would be the client's BEST course of action?

A.

Perform their own risk assessment

B.

Implement additional controls to address the risk.

C.

Accept the risk based on the third party's risk assessment

D.

Perform an independent audit of the third party.

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Question # 353

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the ongoing efficiency of control processes?

A.

Perform annual risk assessments.

B.

Interview process owners.

C.

Review the risk register.

D.

Analyze key performance indicators (KPIs).

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Question # 354

Which of the following would be MOST important for a risk practitioner to provide to the internal audit department during the audit planning process?

A.

Closed management action plans from the previous audit

B.

Annual risk assessment results

C.

An updated vulnerability management report

D.

A list of identified generic risk scenarios

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Question # 355

Which of the following is the BEST way to validate the results of a vulnerability assessment?

A.

Perform a penetration test.

B.

Review security logs.

C.

Conduct a threat analysis.

D.

Perform a root cause analysis.

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Question # 356

After undertaking a risk assessment of a production system, the MOST appropriate action is for the risk manager to:

A.

recommend a program that minimizes the concerns of that production system.

B.

inform the development team of the concerns, and together formulate risk reduction measures.

C.

inform the process owner of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them

D.

inform the IT manager of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.

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Question # 357

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to use global standards related to risk management?

A.

To build an organizational risk-aware culture

B.

To continuously improve risk management processes

C.

To comply with legal and regulatory requirements

D.

To identify gaps in risk management practices

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Question # 358

Risk mitigation procedures should include:

A.

buying an insurance policy.

B.

acceptance of exposures

C.

deployment of counter measures.

D.

enterprise architecture implementation.

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Question # 359

Reviewing results from which of the following is the BEST way to identify information systems control deficiencies?

A.

Vulnerability and threat analysis

B.

Control remediation planning

C.

User acceptance testing (UAT)

D.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

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Question # 360

An organization has procured a managed hosting service and just discovered the location is likely to be flooded every 20 years. Of the following, who should be notified of this new information FIRST.

A.

The risk owner who also owns the business service enabled by this infrastructure

B.

The data center manager who is also employed under the managed hosting services contract

C.

The site manager who is required to provide annual risk assessments under the contract

D.

The chief information officer (CIO) who is responsible for the hosted services

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Question # 361

Which of the following is MOST critical when designing controls?

A.

Involvement of internal audit

B.

Involvement of process owner

C.

Quantitative impact of the risk

D.

Identification of key risk indicators

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Question # 362

Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of engaging the risk owner during the risk assessment process?

A.

Identification of controls gaps that may lead to noncompliance

B.

Prioritization of risk action plans across departments

C.

Early detection of emerging threats

D.

Accurate measurement of loss impact

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Question # 363

An organization has allowed its cyber risk insurance to lapse while seeking a new insurance provider. The risk practitioner should report to management that the risk has been:

A.

transferred

B.

mitigated.

C.

accepted

D.

avoided

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Question # 364

Which of the following would be the BEST recommendation if the level of risk in the IT risk profile has decreased and is now below management's risk appetite?

A.

Optimize the control environment.

B.

Realign risk appetite to the current risk level.

C.

Decrease the number of related risk scenarios.

D.

Reduce the risk management budget.

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Question # 365

Which of the following is MOST helpful in identifying new risk exposures due to changes in the business environment?

A.

Standard operating procedures

B.

SWOT analysis

C.

Industry benchmarking

D.

Control gap analysis

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Question # 366

An organization has outsourced its IT security operations to a third party. Who is ULTIMATELY accountable for the risk associated with the outsourced operations?

A.

The third party s management

B.

The organization's management

C.

The control operators at the third party

D.

The organization's vendor management office

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Question # 367

A risk practitioner is organizing risk awareness training for senior management. Which of the following is the MOST important topic to cover in the training session?

A.

The organization's strategic risk management projects

B.

Senior management roles and responsibilities

C.

The organizations risk appetite and tolerance

D.

Senior management allocation of risk management resources

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Question # 368

A risk practitioners PRIMARY focus when validating a risk response action plan should be that risk response:

A.

reduces risk to an acceptable level

B.

quantifies risk impact

C.

aligns with business strategy

D.

advances business objectives.

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Question # 369

Which of the following would provide the BEST guidance when selecting an appropriate risk treatment plan?

A.

Risk mitigation budget

B.

Business Impact analysis

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Return on investment

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Question # 370

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of incorporating IT risk scenarios into the corporate risk register?

A.

Corporate incident escalation protocols are established.

B.

Exposure is integrated into the organization's risk profile.

C.

Risk appetite cascades to business unit management

D.

The organization-wide control budget is expanded.

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Question # 371

Which of the following is the MAIN reason for documenting the performance of controls?

A.

Obtaining management sign-off

B.

Demonstrating effective risk mitigation

C.

Justifying return on investment

D.

Providing accurate risk reporting

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Question # 372

Which of the following is the BEST course of action to reduce risk impact?

A.

Create an IT security policy.

B.

Implement corrective measures.

C.

Implement detective controls.

D.

Leverage existing technology

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Question # 373

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY input when designing IT controls?

A.

Benchmark of industry standards

B.

Internal and external risk reports

C.

Recommendations from IT risk experts

D.

Outcome of control self-assessments

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Question # 374

Which of the following would be MOST helpful when estimating the likelihood of negative events?

A.

Business impact analysis

B.

Threat analysis

C.

Risk response analysis

D.

Cost-benefit analysis

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Question # 375

A risk practitioner has determined that a key control does not meet design expectations. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

A.

Document the finding in the risk register.

B.

Invoke the incident response plan.

C.

Re-evaluate key risk indicators.

D.

Modify the design of the control.

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Question # 376

Which of the following is the BEST indication of an improved risk-aware culture following the implementation of a security awareness training program for all employees?

A.

A reduction in the number of help desk calls

B.

An increase in the number of identified system flaws

C.

A reduction in the number of user access resets

D.

An increase in the number of incidents reported

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Question # 377

The PRIMARY objective of testing the effectiveness of a new control before implementation is to:

A.

ensure that risk is mitigated by the control.

B.

measure efficiency of the control process.

C.

confirm control alignment with business objectives.

D.

comply with the organization's policy.

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Question # 378

Which of the following would BEST help an enterprise prioritize risk scenarios?

A.

Industry best practices

B.

Placement on the risk map

C.

Degree of variances in the risk

D.

Cost of risk mitigation

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Question # 379

A systems interruption has been traced to a personal USB device plugged into the corporate network by an IT employee who bypassed internal control procedures. Of the following, who should be accountable?

A.

Business continuity manager (BCM)

B.

Human resources manager (HRM)

C.

Chief risk officer (CRO)

D.

Chief information officer (CIO)

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Question # 380

Which of the following is the BEST method for assessing control effectiveness?

A.

Ad hoc control reporting

B.

Control self-assessment

C.

Continuous monitoring

D.

Predictive analytics

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Question # 381

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the maturity of an organization's security incident handling process?

A.

The number of security incidents escalated to senior management

B.

The number of resolved security incidents

C.

The number of newly identified security incidents

D.

The number of recurring security incidents

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Question # 382

The PRIMARY objective for selecting risk response options is to:

A.

reduce risk 10 an acceptable level.

B.

identify compensating controls.

C.

minimize residual risk.

D.

reduce risk factors.

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Question # 383

In addition to the risk register, what should a risk practitioner review to develop an understanding of the organization's risk profile?

A.

The control catalog

B.

The asset profile

C.

Business objectives

D.

Key risk indicators (KRls)

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Question # 384

Establishing and organizational code of conduct is an example of which type of control?

A.

Preventive

B.

Directive

C.

Detective

D.

Compensating

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Question # 385

During a routine check, a system administrator identifies unusual activity indicating an intruder within a firewall. Which of the following controls has MOST likely been compromised?

A.

Data validation

B.

Identification

C.

Authentication

D.

Data integrity

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Question # 386

To implement the MOST effective monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIs), which of the following needs to be in place?

A.

Threshold definition

B.

Escalation procedures

C.

Automated data feed

D.

Controls monitoring

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Question # 387

Which of the following is MOST helpful to ensure effective security controls for a cloud service provider?

A.

A control self-assessment

B.

A third-party security assessment report

C.

Internal audit reports from the vendor

D.

Service level agreement monitoring

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Question # 388

Which of the following is the MOST useful indicator to measure the efficiency of an identity and access management process?

A.

Number of tickets for provisioning new accounts

B.

Average time to provision user accounts

C.

Password reset volume per month

D.

Average account lockout time

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Question # 389

A business unit is updating a risk register with assessment results for a key project. Which of the following is MOST important to capture in the register?

A.

The team that performed the risk assessment

B.

An assigned risk manager to provide oversight

C.

Action plans to address risk scenarios requiring treatment

D.

The methodology used to perform the risk assessment

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Question # 390

Who is the MOST appropriate owner for newly identified IT risk?

A.

The manager responsible for IT operations that will support the risk mitigation efforts

B.

The individual with authority to commit organizational resources to mitigate the risk

C.

A project manager capable of prioritizing the risk remediation efforts

D.

The individual with the most IT risk-related subject matter knowledge

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Question # 391

Which of the following activities would BEST contribute to promoting an organization-wide risk-aware culture?

A.

Performing a benchmark analysis and evaluating gaps

B.

Conducting risk assessments and implementing controls

C.

Communicating components of risk and their acceptable levels

D.

Participating in peer reviews and implementing best practices

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Question # 392

The head of a business operations department asks to review the entire IT risk register. Which of the following would be the risk manager s BEST approach to this request before sharing the register?

A.

Escalate to senior management

B.

Require a nondisclosure agreement.

C.

Sanitize portions of the register

D.

Determine the purpose of the request

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Question # 393

Which of the following techniques would be used during a risk assessment to demonstrate to stakeholders that all known alternatives were evaluated?

A.

Control chart

B.

Sensitivity analysis

C.

Trend analysis

D.

Decision tree

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Question # 394

When reviewing management's IT control self-assessments, a risk practitioner noted an ineffective control that links to several low residual risk scenarios. What should be the NEXT course of action?

A.

Assess management's risk tolerance.

B.

Recommend management accept the low-risk scenarios.

C.

Propose mitigating controls

D.

Re-evaluate the risk scenarios associated with the control

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Question # 395

IT risk assessments can BEST be used by management:

A.

for compliance with laws and regulations

B.

as a basis for cost-benefit analysis.

C.

as input for decision-making

D.

to measure organizational success.

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Question # 396

Which of the following would BEST help to ensure that identified risk is efficiently managed?

A.

Reviewing the maturity of the control environment

B.

Regularly monitoring the project plan

C.

Maintaining a key risk indicator for each asset in the risk register

D.

Periodically reviewing controls per the risk treatment plan

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Question # 397

Which of the following is MOST important when developing key performance indicators (KPIs)?

A.

Alignment to risk responses

B.

Alignment to management reports

C.

Alerts when risk thresholds are reached

D.

Identification of trends

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Question # 398

The PRIMARY advantage of implementing an IT risk management framework is the:

A.

establishment of a reliable basis for risk-aware decision making.

B.

compliance with relevant legal and regulatory requirements.

C.

improvement of controls within the organization and minimized losses.

D.

alignment of business goals with IT objectives.

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Question # 399

Which of the following would BEST ensure that identified risk scenarios are addressed?

A.

Reviewing the implementation of the risk response

B.

Creating a separate risk register for key business units

C.

Performing real-time monitoring of threats

D.

Performing regular risk control self-assessments

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Question # 400

Which of the following should be the HIGHEST priority when developing a risk response?

A.

The risk response addresses the risk with a holistic view.

B.

The risk response is based on a cost-benefit analysis.

C.

The risk response is accounted for in the budget.

D.

The risk response aligns with the organization's risk appetite.

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Question # 401

The MOST effective way to increase the likelihood that risk responses will be implemented is to:

A.

create an action plan

B.

assign ownership

C.

review progress reports

D.

perform regular audits.

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Question # 402

Who should be accountable for ensuring effective cybersecurity controls are established?

A.

Risk owner

B.

Security management function

C.

IT management

D.

Enterprise risk function

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Question # 403

Which of the following is the BEST way for a risk practitioner to help management prioritize risk response?

A.

Align business objectives to the risk profile.

B.

Assess risk against business objectives

C.

Implement an organization-specific risk taxonomy.

D.

Explain risk details to management.

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Question # 404

An unauthorized individual has socially engineered entry into an organization's secured physical premises. Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent future occurrences?

A.

Employ security guards.

B.

Conduct security awareness training.

C.

Install security cameras.

D.

Require security access badges.

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Question # 405

Improvements in the design and implementation of a control will MOST likely result in an update to:

A.

inherent risk.

B.

residual risk.

C.

risk appetite

D.

risk tolerance

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Question # 406

Which of the following would BEST help minimize the risk associated with social engineering threats?

A.

Enforcing employees’ sanctions

B.

Conducting phishing exercises

C.

Enforcing segregation of dunes

D.

Reviewing the organization's risk appetite

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Question # 407

Which of the following is the MOST important data source for monitoring key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

Directives from legal and regulatory authorities

B.

Audit reports from internal information systems audits

C.

Automated logs collected from different systems

D.

Trend analysis of external risk factors

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Question # 408

Which of the following is the MOST important requirement for monitoring key risk indicators (KRls) using log analysis?

A.

Obtaining logs m an easily readable format

B.

Providing accurate logs m a timely manner

C.

Collecting logs from the entire set of IT systems

D.

implementing an automated log analysis tool

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Question # 409

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when implementing controls for monitoring user activity logs?

A.

Ensuring availability of resources for log analysis

B.

Implementing log analysis tools to automate controls

C.

Ensuring the control is proportional to the risk

D.

Building correlations between logs collected from different sources

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Question # 410

An effective control environment is BEST indicated by controls that:

A.

minimize senior management's risk tolerance.

B.

manage risk within the organization's risk appetite.

C.

reduce the thresholds of key risk indicators (KRIs).

D.

are cost-effective to implement

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Question # 411

Which of the following would be MOST useful when measuring the progress of a risk response action plan?

A.

Percentage of mitigated risk scenarios

B.

Annual loss expectancy (ALE) changes

C.

Resource expenditure against budget

D.

An up-to-date risk register

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Question # 412

Which of the following is the BEST approach to use when creating a comprehensive set of IT risk scenarios?

A.

Derive scenarios from IT risk policies and standards.

B.

Map scenarios to a recognized risk management framework.

C.

Gather scenarios from senior management.

D.

Benchmark scenarios against industry peers.

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Question # 413

Periodically reviewing and updating a risk register with details on identified risk factors PRIMARILY helps to:

A.

minimize the number of risk scenarios for risk assessment.

B.

aggregate risk scenarios identified across different business units.

C.

build a threat profile of the organization for management review.

D.

provide a current reference to stakeholders for risk-based decisions.

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Question # 414

The MAIN purpose of conducting a control self-assessment (CSA) is to:

A.

gain a better understanding of the control effectiveness in the organization

B.

gain a better understanding of the risk in the organization

C.

adjust the controls prior to an external audit

D.

reduce the dependency on external audits

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Question # 415

Which of the following is the FIRST step in managing the security risk associated with wearable technology in the workplace?

A.

Identify the potential risk.

B.

Monitor employee usage.

C.

Assess the potential risk.

D.

Develop risk awareness training.

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Question # 416

Which of the following is the BEST indication of an effective risk management program?

A.

Risk action plans are approved by senior management.

B.

Residual risk is within the organizational risk appetite

C.

Mitigating controls are designed and implemented.

D.

Risk is recorded and tracked in the risk register

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Question # 417

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner'$ BEST recommendation to help ensure cyber risk is assessed and reflected in the enterprise-level risk profile?

A.

Manage cyber risk according to the organization's risk management framework.

B.

Define cyber roles and responsibilities across the organization

C.

Conduct cyber risk awareness training tailored specifically for senior management

D.

Implement a cyber risk program based on industry best practices

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Question # 418

Which of the following is the BEST course of action to help reduce the probability of an incident recurring?

A.

Perform a risk assessment.

B.

Perform root cause analysis.

C.

Initiate disciplinary action.

D.

Update the incident response plan.

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Question # 419

A chief information officer (CIO) has identified risk associated with shadow systems being maintained by business units to address specific functionality gaps in the organization's enterprise resource planning (ERP) system. What is the BEST way to reduce this risk going forward?

A.

Align applications to business processes.

B.

Implement an enterprise architecture (EA).

C.

Define the software development life cycle (SDLC).

D.

Define enterprise-wide system procurement requirements.

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Question # 420

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST recommendation to address an organization's need to secure multiple systems with limited IT resources?

A.

Apply available security patches.

B.

Schedule a penetration test.

C.

Conduct a business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Perform a vulnerability analysis.

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Question # 421

A financial institution has identified high risk of fraud in several business applications. Which of the following controls will BEST help reduce the risk of fraudulent internal transactions?

A.

Periodic user privileges review

B.

Log monitoring

C.

Periodic internal audits

D.

Segregation of duties

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Question # 422

Which of the following will help ensure the elective decision-making of an IT risk management committee?

A.

Key stakeholders are enrolled as members

B.

Approved minutes ate forwarded to senior management

C.

Committee meets at least quarterly

D.

Functional overlap across the business is minimized

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Question # 423

Which of the following poses the GREATEST risk to an organization's operations during a major it transformation?

A.

Lack of robust awareness programs

B.

infrequent risk assessments of key controls

C.

Rapid changes in IT procedures

D.

Unavailability of critical IT systems

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Question # 424

Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern lo a risk practitioner reviewing the implementation of an emerging technology?

A.

Lack of alignment to best practices

B.

Lack of risk assessment

C.

Lack of risk and control procedures

D.

Lack of management approval

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Question # 425

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to integrate risk and compliance management?

A.

Embedding risk management into compliance decision-making

B.

Designing corrective actions to improve risk response capabilities

C.

Embedding risk management into processes that are aligned with business drivers

D.

Conducting regular self-assessments to verify compliance

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Question # 426

After the review of a risk record, internal audit questioned why the risk was lowered from medium to low. Which of the following is the BEST course of action in responding to this inquiry?

A.

Obtain industry benchmarks related to the specific risk.

B.

Provide justification for the lower risk rating.

C.

Notify the business at the next risk briefing.

D.

Reopen the risk issue and complete a full assessment.

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Question # 427

A global organization is planning to collect customer behavior data through social media advertising. Which of the following is the MOST important business risk to be considered?

A.

Regulatory requirements may differ in each country.

B.

Data sampling may be impacted by various industry restrictions.

C.

Business advertising will need to be tailored by country.

D.

The data analysis may be ineffective in achieving objectives.

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Question # 428

A control for mitigating risk in a key business area cannot be implemented immediately. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action when a compensating control needs to be applied?

A.

Obtain the risk owner's approval.

B.

Record the risk as accepted in the risk register.

C.

Inform senior management.

D.

update the risk response plan.

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Question # 429

Which of the following BEST measures the impact of business interruptions caused by an IT service outage?

A.

Sustained financial loss

B.

Cost of remediation efforts

C.

Duration of service outage

D.

Average time to recovery

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Question # 430

Which of the following is a drawback in the use of quantitative risk analysis?

A.

It assigns numeric values to exposures of assets.

B.

It requires more resources than other methods

C.

It produces the results in numeric form.

D.

It is based on impact analysis of information assets.

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Question # 431

Which of the following would be the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for monitoring the effectiveness of the IT asset management process?

A.

Percentage of unpatched IT assets

B.

Percentage of IT assets without ownership

C.

The number of IT assets securely disposed during the past year

D.

The number of IT assets procured during the previous month

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Question # 432

Which of the following is the BEST indication of a mature organizational risk culture?

A.

Corporate risk appetite is communicated to staff members.

B.

Risk owners understand and accept accountability for risk.

C.

Risk policy has been published and acknowledged by employees.

D.

Management encourages the reporting of policy breaches.

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Question # 433

Which of the following BEST indicates that an organization has implemented IT performance requirements?

A.

Service level agreements (SLA)

B.

Vendor references

C.

Benchmarking data

D.

Accountability matrix

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Question # 434

An IT risk practitioner has determined that mitigation activities differ from an approved risk action plan. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Report the observation to the chief risk officer (CRO).

B.

Validate the adequacy of the implemented risk mitigation measures.

C.

Update the risk register with the implemented risk mitigation actions.

D.

Revert the implemented mitigation measures until approval is obtained

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Question # 435

Winch of the following key control indicators (KCIs) BEST indicates whether security requirements are identified and managed throughout a project He cycle?

A.

Number of projects going live without a security review

B.

Number of employees completing project-specific security training

C.

Number of security projects started in core departments

D.

Number of security-related status reports submitted by project managers

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Question # 436

Which of the following BEST indicates the effectiveness of anti-malware software?

A.

Number of staff hours lost due to malware attacks

B.

Number of downtime hours in business critical servers

C.

Number of patches made to anti-malware software

D.

Number of successful attacks by malicious software

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Question # 437

Which of the following BEST enables a risk practitioner to enhance understanding of risk among stakeholders?

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Risk scenarios

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Threat analysis

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Question # 438

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when identifying stakeholders to review risk scenarios developed by a risk analyst? The reviewers are:

A.

accountable for the affected processes.

B.

members of senior management.

C.

authorized to select risk mitigation options.

D.

independent from the business operations.

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Question # 439

Which of the following can be used to assign a monetary value to risk?

A.

Annual loss expectancy (ALE)

B.

Business impact analysis

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Inherent vulnerabilities

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Question # 440

A key risk indicator (KRI) indicates a reduction in the percentage of appropriately patched servers. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Determine changes in the risk level.

B.

Outsource the vulnerability management process.

C.

Review the patch management process.

D.

Add agenda item to the next risk committee meeting.

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Question # 441

Implementing which of the following controls would BEST reduce the impact of a vulnerability that has been exploited?

A.

Detective control

B.

Deterrent control

C.

Preventive control

D.

Corrective control

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Question # 442

A risk practitioner notices a trend of noncompliance with an IT-related control. Which of the following would BEST assist in making a recommendation to management?

A.

Assessing the degree to which the control hinders business objectives

B.

Reviewing the IT policy with the risk owner

C.

Reviewing the roles and responsibilities of control process owners

D.

Assessing noncompliance with control best practices

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Question # 443

What are the MOST important criteria to consider when developing a data classification scheme to facilitate risk assessment and the prioritization of risk mitigation activities?

A.

Mitigation and control value

B.

Volume and scope of data generated daily

C.

Business criticality and sensitivity

D.

Recovery point objective (RPO) and recovery time objective (RTO)

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Question # 444

What should a risk practitioner do FIRST when vulnerability assessment results identify a weakness in an application?

A.

Review regular control testing results.

B.

Recommend a penetration test.

C.

Assess the risk to determine mitigation needed.

D.

Analyze key performance indicators (KPIs).

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