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CRISC Questions and Answers

Question # 6

When reviewing a business continuity plan (BCP). which of the following would be the MOST significant deficiency?

A.

BCP testing is net in conjunction with the disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs) do not meet business requirements.

C.

BCP is often tested using the walk-through method.

D.

Each business location has separate, inconsistent BCPs.

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Question # 7

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of using an entry in the risk register to track the aggregate risk associated with server failure?

A.

It provides a cost-benefit analysis on control options available for implementation.

B.

It provides a view on where controls should be applied to maximize the uptime of servers.

C.

It provides historical information about the impact of individual servers malfunctioning.

D.

It provides a comprehensive view of the impact should the servers simultaneously fail.

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Question # 8

What is the PRIMARY purpose of a business impact analysis (BIA)?

A.

To determine the likelihood and impact of threats to business operations

B.

To identify important business processes in the organization

C.

To estimate resource requirements for related business processes

D.

To evaluate the priority of business operations in case of disruption

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Question # 9

A risk practitioner is advising management on how to update the IT policy framework to account for the organization s cloud usage. Which of the following should be the FIRST step in this process?

A.

Consult with industry peers regarding cloud best practices.

B.

Evaluate adherence to existing IT policies and standards.

C.

Determine gaps between the current state and target framework.

D.

Adopt an industry-leading cloud computing framework.

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Question # 10

A risk practitioner has identified that the agreed recovery time objective (RTO) with a Software as a Service (SaaS) provider is longer than the business expectation. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Collaborate with the risk owner to determine the risk response plan.

B.

Document the gap in the risk register and report to senior management.

C.

Include a right to audit clause in the service provider contract.

D.

Advise the risk owner to accept the risk.

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Question # 11

What would be MOST helpful to ensuring the effective implementation of a new cybersecurity program?

A.

Creating metrics to report the number of security incidents

B.

Hiring subject matter experts for the program

C.

Establishing a budget for additional resources

D.

Assigning clear ownership of the program

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Question # 12

The BEST way to test the operational effectiveness of a data backup procedure is to:

A.

conduct an audit of files stored offsite.

B.

interview employees to compare actual with expected procedures.

C.

inspect a selection of audit trails and backup logs.

D.

demonstrate a successful recovery from backup files.

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Question # 13

Which of the following MUST be updated to maintain an IT risk register?

A.

Expected frequency and potential impact

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Enterprise-wide IT risk assessment

D.

Risk appetite

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Question # 14

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when implementing ethical remote work monitoring?

A.

Monitoring is only conducted between official hours of business

B.

Employees are informed of how they are bong monitored

C.

Reporting on nonproductive employees is sent to management on a scheduled basis

D.

Multiple data monitoring sources are integrated into security incident response procedures

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Question # 15

Prudent business practice requires that risk appetite not exceed:

A.

inherent risk.

B.

risk tolerance.

C.

risk capacity.

D.

residual risk.

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Question # 16

While reviewing a contract of a cloud services vendor, it was discovered that the vendor refuses to accept liability for a sensitive data breach. Which of the following controls will BES reduce the risk associated with such a data breach?

A.

Ensuring the vendor does not know the encryption key

B.

Engaging a third party to validate operational controls

C.

Using the same cloud vendor as a competitor

D.

Using field-level encryption with a vendor supplied key

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Question # 17

Which of the following BEST enables a proactive approach to minimizing the potential impact of unauthorized data disclosure?

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Data backups

C.

Incident response plan

D.

Cyber insurance

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Question # 18

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine software license compliance?

A.

List non-compliant systems in the risk register.

B.

Conduct periodic compliance reviews.

C.

Review whistleblower reports of noncompliance.

D.

Monitor user software download activity.

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Question # 19

While evaluating control costs, management discovers that the annual cost exceeds the annual loss expectancy (ALE) of the risk. This indicates the:

A.

control is ineffective and should be strengthened

B.

risk is inefficiently controlled.

C.

risk is efficiently controlled.

D.

control is weak and should be removed.

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Question # 20

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of providing an aggregated view of IT risk to business management?

A.

To enable consistent data on risk to be obtained

B.

To allow for proper review of risk tolerance

C.

To identify dependencies for reporting risk

D.

To provide consistent and clear terminology

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Question # 21

In an organization where each division manages risk independently, which of the following would BEST enable management of risk at the enterprise level?

A.

A standardized risk taxonomy

B.

A list of control deficiencies

C.

An enterprise risk ownership policy

D.

An updated risk tolerance metric

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Question # 22

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to integrate risk and compliance management?

A.

Embedding risk management into compliance decision-making

B.

Designing corrective actions to improve risk response capabilities

C.

Embedding risk management into processes that are aligned with business drivers

D.

Conducting regular self-assessments to verify compliance

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Question # 23

Risk appetite should be PRIMARILY driven by which of the following?

A.

Enterprise security architecture roadmap

B.

Stakeholder requirements

C.

Legal and regulatory requirements

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Question # 24

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY objective of promoting a risk-aware culture within an organization?

A.

Better understanding of the risk appetite

B.

Improving audit results

C.

Enabling risk-based decision making

D.

Increasing process control efficiencies

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Question # 25

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to establish the root cause of an IT security incident?

A.

Prepare a report for senior management.

B.

Assign responsibility and accountability for the incident.

C.

Update the risk register.

D.

Avoid recurrence of the incident.

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Question # 26

The MAIN reason for creating and maintaining a risk register is to:

A.

assess effectiveness of different projects.

B.

define the risk assessment methodology.

C.

ensure assets have low residual risk.

D.

account for identified key risk factors.

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Question # 27

In an organization that allows employee use of social media accounts for work purposes, which of the following is the BEST way to protect company sensitive information from being exposed?

A.

Educating employees on what needs to be kept confidential

B.

Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution

C.

Taking punitive action against employees who expose confidential data

D.

Requiring employees to sign nondisclosure agreements

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Question # 28

When updating the risk register after a risk assessment, which of the following is MOST important to include?

A.

Historical losses due to past risk events

B.

Cost to reduce the impact and likelihood

C.

Likelihood and impact of the risk scenario

D.

Actor and threat type of the risk scenario

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Question # 29

Senior management has asked the risk practitioner for the overall residual risk level for a process that contains numerous risk scenarios. Which of the following should be provided?

A.

The sum of residual risk levels for each scenario

B.

The loss expectancy for aggregated risk scenarios

C.

The highest loss expectancy among the risk scenarios

D.

The average of anticipated residual risk levels

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Question # 30

Which of the following scenarios represents a threat?

A.

Connecting a laptop to a free, open, wireless access point (hotspot)

B.

Visitors not signing in as per policy

C.

Storing corporate data in unencrypted form on a laptop

D.

A virus transmitted on a USB thumb drive

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Question # 31

Which of the following is the BEST evidence that risk management is driving business decisions in an organization?

A.

Compliance breaches are addressed in a timely manner.

B.

Risk ownership is identified and assigned.

C.

Risk treatment options receive adequate funding.

D.

Residual risk is within risk tolerance.

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Question # 32

Which of the following would BEST help to address the risk associated with malicious outsiders modifying application data?

A.

Multi-factor authentication

B.

Role-based access controls

C.

Activation of control audits

D.

Acceptable use policies

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Question # 33

As pan of business continuity planning, which of the following is MOST important to include m a business impact analysis (BlA)?

A.

An assessment of threats to the organization

B.

An assessment of recovery scenarios

C.

industry standard framework

D.

Documentation of testing procedures

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Question # 34

Which of the following would BEST indicate to senior management that IT processes are improving?

A.

Changes in the number of intrusions detected

B.

Changes in the number of security exceptions

C.

Changes in the position in the maturity model

D.

Changes to the structure of the risk register

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Question # 35

The MOST important consideration when selecting a control to mitigate an identified risk is whether:

A.

the cost of control exceeds the mitigation value

B.

there are sufficient internal resources to implement the control

C.

the mitigation measures create compounding effects

D.

the control eliminates the risk

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Question # 36

The MOST important objective of information security controls is to:

A.

Identify threats and vulnerability

B.

Ensure alignment with industry standards

C.

Provide measurable risk reduction

D.

Enforce strong security solutions

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Question # 37

The BEST way to obtain senior management support for investment in a control implementation would be to articulate the reduction in:

A.

detected incidents.

B.

residual risk.

C.

vulnerabilities.

D.

inherent risk.

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Question # 38

What is the PRIMARY reason to periodically review key performance indicators (KPIs)?

A.

Ensure compliance.

B.

Identify trends.

C.

Promote a risk-aware culture.

D.

Optimize resources needed for controls

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Question # 39

Which of the following is the MOST effective control to ensure user access is maintained on a least-privilege basis?

A.

User authorization

B.

User recertification

C.

Change log review

D.

Access log monitoring

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Question # 40

To minimize the risk of a potential acquisition being exposed externally, an organization has selected a few key employees to be engaged in the due diligence process. A member of the due diligence team realizes a close acquaintance is a high-ranking IT professional at a subsidiary of the company about to be acquired. What is the BEST course of action for this team member?

A.

Enforce segregation of duties.

B.

Disclose potential conflicts of interest.

C.

Delegate responsibilities involving the acquaintance.

D.

Notify the subsidiary's legal team.

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Question # 41

Print jobs containing confidential information are sent to a shared network printer located in a secure room. Which of the following is the BEST control to prevent the inappropriate disclosure of confidential information?

A.

Requiring a printer access code for each user

B.

Using physical controls to access the printer room

C.

Using video surveillance in the printer room

D.

Ensuring printer parameters are properly configured

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Question # 42

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a disaster recovery test of critical business processes?

A.

Percentage of job failures identified and resolved during the recovery process

B.

Percentage of processes recovered within the recovery time and point objectives

C.

Number of current test plans and procedures

D.

Number of issues and action items resolved during the recovery test

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Question # 43

Which of the following BEST enables effective IT control implementation?

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Documented procedures

C.

Information security policies

D.

Information security standards

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Question # 44

Which of the following would BEST assist in reconstructing the sequence of events following a security incident across multiple IT systems in the organization's network?

A.

Network monitoring infrastructure

B.

Centralized vulnerability management

C.

Incident management process

D.

Centralized log management

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Question # 45

Which of the following presents the GREATEST risk to change control in business application development over the complete life cycle?

A.

Emphasis on multiple application testing cycles

B.

Lack of an integrated development environment (IDE) tool

C.

Introduction of requirements that have not been approved

D.

Bypassing quality requirements before go-live

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Question # 46

Which of We following is the MOST effective control to address the risk associated with compromising data privacy within the cloud?

A.

Establish baseline security configurations with the cloud service provider.

B.

Require the cloud prowler 10 disclose past data privacy breaches.

C.

Ensure the cloud service provider performs an annual risk assessment.

D.

Specify cloud service provider liability for data privacy breaches in the contract

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Question # 47

Which of the following would be- MOST helpful to understand the impact of a new technology system on an organization's current risk profile?

A.

Hire consultants specializing m the new technology.

B.

Review existing risk mitigation controls.

C.

Conduct a gap analysis.

D.

Perform a risk assessment.

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Question # 48

An organization has just implemented changes to close an identified vulnerability that impacted a critical business process. What should be the NEXT course of action?

A.

Redesign the heat map.

B.

Review the risk tolerance.

C.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Update the risk register.

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Question # 49

Which of the following should be the risk practitioner s PRIMARY focus when determining whether controls are adequate to mitigate risk?

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Level of residual risk

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Risk appetite

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Question # 50

An organization delegates its data processing to the internal IT team to manage information through its applications. Which of the following is the role of the internal IT team in this situation?

A.

Data controllers

B.

Data processors

C.

Data custodians

D.

Data owners

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Question # 51

A risk heat map is MOST commonly used as part of an IT risk analysis to facilitate risk:

A.

identification.

B.

treatment.

C.

communication.

D.

assessment

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Question # 52

Reviewing results from which of the following is the BEST way to identify information systems control deficiencies?

A.

Vulnerability and threat analysis

B.

Control remediation planning

C.

User acceptance testing (UAT)

D.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

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Question # 53

What should be the PRIMARY consideration related to data privacy protection when there are plans for a business initiative to make use of personal information?

A.

Do not collect or retain data that is not needed.

B.

Redact data where possible.

C.

Limit access to the personal data.

D.

Ensure all data is encrypted at rest and during transit.

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Question # 54

Which of the following is the MOST important outcome of reviewing the risk management process?

A.

Assuring the risk profile supports the IT objectives

B.

Improving the competencies of employees who performed the review

C.

Determining what changes should be made to IS policies to reduce risk

D.

Determining that procedures used in risk assessment are appropriate

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Question # 55

Which of the following is the MOST useful indicator to measure the efficiency of an identity and access management process?

A.

Number of tickets for provisioning new accounts

B.

Average time to provision user accounts

C.

Password reset volume per month

D.

Average account lockout time

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Question # 56

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to revisit a previously accepted risk?

A.

To update risk ownership

B.

To review the risk acceptance with new stakeholders

C.

To ensure risk levels have not changed

D.

To ensure controls are still operating effectively

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Question # 57

When performing a risk assessment of a new service to support a core business process, which of the following should be done FIRST to ensure continuity of operations?

A.

Define metrics for restoring availability.

B.

Identify conditions that may cause disruptions.

C.

Review incident response procedures.

D.

Evaluate the probability of risk events.

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Question # 58

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for determining how well an IT policy is aligned to business requirements?

A.

Total cost to support the policy

B.

Number of exceptions to the policy

C.

Total cost of policy breaches

D.

Number of inquiries regarding the policy

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Question # 59

A risk practitioner has been notified that an employee sent an email in error containing customers' personally identifiable information (Pll). Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Report it to the chief risk officer.

B.

Advise the employee to forward the email to the phishing team.

C.

follow incident reporting procedures.

D.

Advise the employee to permanently delete the email.

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Question # 60

The acceptance of control costs that exceed risk exposure is MOST likely an example of:

A.

low risk tolerance.

B.

corporate culture misalignment.

C.

corporate culture alignment.

D.

high risk tolerance

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Question # 61

Which of the following would be MOST relevant to stakeholders regarding ineffective control implementation?

A.

Threat to IT

B.

Number of control failures

C.

Impact on business

D.

Risk ownership

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Question # 62

A risk assessment has identified that departments have installed their own WiFi access points on the enterprise network. Which of the following would be MOST important to include in a report to senior management?

A.

The network security policy

B.

Potential business impact

C.

The WiFi access point configuration

D.

Planned remediation actions

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Question # 63

Which of the following should be the MAIN consideration when validating an organization's risk appetite?

A.

Comparison against regulations

B.

Maturity of the risk culture

C.

Capacity to withstand loss

D.

Cost of risk mitigation options

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Question # 64

A global organization is considering the acquisition of a competitor. Senior management has requested a review of the overall risk profile from the targeted organization. Which of the following components of this review would provide the MOST useful information?

A.

Risk appetite statement

B.

Enterprise risk management framework

C.

Risk management policies

D.

Risk register

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Question # 65

A global company s business continuity plan (BCP) requires the transfer of its customer information….

event of a disaster. Which of the following should be the MOST important risk consideration?

A.

The difference In the management practices between each company

B.

The cloud computing environment is shared with another company

C.

The lack of a service level agreement (SLA) in the vendor contract

D.

The organizational culture differences between each country

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Question # 66

Who should be responsible for implementing and maintaining security controls?

A.

End user

B.

Internal auditor

C.

Data owner

D.

Data custodian

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Question # 67

The PRIMARY objective for selecting risk response options is to:

A.

reduce risk 10 an acceptable level.

B.

identify compensating controls.

C.

minimize residual risk.

D.

reduce risk factors.

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Question # 68

Which of the following would qualify as a key performance indicator (KPI)?

A.

Aggregate risk of the organization

B.

Number of identified system vulnerabilities

C.

Number of exception requests processed in the past 90 days

D.

Number of attacks against the organization's website

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Question # 69

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when multiple risk practitioners capture risk scenarios in a single risk register?

A.

Aligning risk ownership and control ownership

B.

Developing risk escalation and reporting procedures

C.

Maintaining up-to-date risk treatment plans

D.

Using a consistent method for risk assessment

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Question # 70

Which of the following resources is MOST helpful when creating a manageable set of IT risk scenarios?

A.

Results of current and past risk assessments

B.

Organizational strategy and objectives

C.

Lessons learned from materialized risk scenarios

D.

Internal and external audit findings

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Question # 71

When reviewing management's IT control self-assessments, a risk practitioner noted an ineffective control that links to several low residual risk scenarios. What should be the NEXT course of action?

A.

Assess management's risk tolerance.

B.

Recommend management accept the low-risk scenarios.

C.

Propose mitigating controls

D.

Re-evaluate the risk scenarios associated with the control

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Question # 72

Which of the following would MOST likely result in updates to an IT risk appetite statement?

A.

External audit findings

B.

Feedback from focus groups

C.

Self-assessment reports

D.

Changes in senior management

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Question # 73

Real-time monitoring of security cameras implemented within a retail store is an example of which type of control?

A.

Preventive

B.

Deterrent

C.

Compensating

D.

Detective

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Question # 74

A risk practitioner is MOST likely to use a SWOT analysis to assist with which risk process?

A.

Risk assessment

B.

Risk reporting

C.

Risk mitigation

D.

Risk identification

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Question # 75

Which of the following is a specific concern related to machine learning algorithms?

A.

Low software quality

B.

Lack of access controls

C.

Data breaches

D.

Data bias

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Question # 76

Which of the following is MOST important to understand when determining an appropriate risk assessment approach?

A.

Complexity of the IT infrastructure

B.

Value of information assets

C.

Management culture

D.

Threats and vulnerabilities

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Question # 77

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY input when designing IT controls?

A.

Benchmark of industry standards

B.

Internal and external risk reports

C.

Recommendations from IT risk experts

D.

Outcome of control self-assessments

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Question # 78

Risk management strategies are PRIMARILY adopted to:

A.

take necessary precautions for claims and losses.

B.

achieve acceptable residual risk levels.

C.

avoid risk for business and IT assets.

D.

achieve compliance with legal requirements.

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Question # 79

A risk practitioners PRIMARY focus when validating a risk response action plan should be that risk response:

A.

reduces risk to an acceptable level

B.

quantifies risk impact

C.

aligns with business strategy

D.

advances business objectives.

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Question # 80

After undertaking a risk assessment of a production system, the MOST appropriate action is for the risk manager to:

A.

recommend a program that minimizes the concerns of that production system.

B.

inform the development team of the concerns, and together formulate risk reduction measures.

C.

inform the process owner of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them

D.

inform the IT manager of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.

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Question # 81

Which of the following is the BEST way for a risk practitioner to help management prioritize risk response?

A.

Align business objectives to the risk profile.

B.

Assess risk against business objectives

C.

Implement an organization-specific risk taxonomy.

D.

Explain risk details to management.

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Question # 82

Which of the following elements of a risk register is MOST likely to change as a result of change in management's risk appetite?

A.

Key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Risk likelihood and impact

D.

Risk velocity

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Question # 83

The analysis of which of the following will BEST help validate whether suspicious network activity is malicious?

A.

Logs and system events

B.

Intrusion detection system (IDS) rules

C.

Vulnerability assessment reports

D.

Penetration test reports

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Question # 84

A web-based service provider with a low risk appetite for system outages is reviewing its current risk profile for online security. Which of the following observations would be MOST relevant to escalate to senior management?

A.

An increase in attempted distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks

B.

An increase in attempted website phishing attacks

C.

A decrease in achievement of service level agreements (SLAs)

D.

A decrease in remediated web security vulnerabilities

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Question # 85

Which of the following is MOST helpful when determining whether a system security control is effective?

A.

Control standard operating procedures

B.

Latest security assessment

C.

Current security threat report

D.

Updated risk register

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Question # 86

A rule-based data loss prevention {DLP) tool has recently been implemented to reduce the risk of sensitive data leakage. Which of the following is MOST likely to change as a result of this implementation?

A.

Risk likelihood

B.

Risk velocity

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk impact

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Question # 87

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help ensure future risk levels do not exceed the organization's risk appetite?

A.

Developing contingency plans for key processes

B.

Implementing key performance indicators (KPIs)

C.

Adding risk triggers to entries in the risk register

D.

Establishing a series of key risk indicators (KRIs)

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Question # 88

When determining which control deficiencies are most significant, which of the following would provide the MOST useful information?

A.

Risk analysis results

B.

Exception handling policy

C.

Vulnerability assessment results

D.

Benchmarking assessments

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Question # 89

Which of the following is the MAIN reason for documenting the performance of controls?

A.

Obtaining management sign-off

B.

Demonstrating effective risk mitigation

C.

Justifying return on investment

D.

Providing accurate risk reporting

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Question # 90

The PRIMARY advantage of implementing an IT risk management framework is the:

A.

establishment of a reliable basis for risk-aware decision making.

B.

compliance with relevant legal and regulatory requirements.

C.

improvement of controls within the organization and minimized losses.

D.

alignment of business goals with IT objectives.

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Question # 91

What is the BEST approach for determining the inherent risk of a scenario when the actual likelihood of the risk is unknown?

A.

Use the severity rating to calculate risk.

B.

Classify the risk scenario as low-probability.

C.

Use the highest likelihood identified by risk management.

D.

Rely on range-based estimates provided by subject-matter experts.

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Question # 92

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the maturity of an organization's security incident handling process?

A.

The number of security incidents escalated to senior management

B.

The number of resolved security incidents

C.

The number of newly identified security incidents

D.

The number of recurring security incidents

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Question # 93

A systems interruption has been traced to a personal USB device plugged into the corporate network by an IT employee who bypassed internal control procedures. Of the following, who should be accountable?

A.

Business continuity manager (BCM)

B.

Human resources manager (HRM)

C.

Chief risk officer (CRO)

D.

Chief information officer (CIO)

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Question # 94

Which of the following can be interpreted from a single data point on a risk heat map?

A.

Risk tolerance

B.

Risk magnitude

C.

Risk response

D.

Risk appetite

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Question # 95

An organization with a large number of applications wants to establish a security risk assessment program. Which of the following would provide the MOST useful information when determining the frequency of risk assessments?

A.

Feedback from end users

B.

Results of a benchmark analysis

C.

Recommendations from internal audit

D.

Prioritization from business owners

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Question # 96

Which of the following is MOST helpful to understand the consequences of an IT risk event?

A.

Fault tree analysis

B.

Historical trend analysis

C.

Root cause analysis

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Question # 97

Which of the following is the BEST approach for obtaining management buy-in

to implement additional IT controls?

A.

List requirements based on a commonly accepted IT risk management framework.

B.

Provide information on new governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) platform functionalities.

C.

Describe IT risk impact on organizational processes in monetary terms.

D.

Present new key risk indicators (KRIs) based on industry benchmarks.

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Question # 98

Which of the following should be initiated when a high number of noncompliant conditions are observed during review of a control procedure?

A.

Disciplinary action

B.

A control self-assessment

C.

A review of the awareness program

D.

Root cause analysis

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Question # 99

Which of the following is MOST helpful to review when identifying risk scenarios associated with the adoption of Internet of Things (loT) technology in an organization?

A.

The business case for the use of loT

B.

The loT threat landscape

C.

Policy development for loT

D.

The network that loT devices can access

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Question # 100

A large organization is replacing its enterprise resource planning (ERP) system and has decided not to deploy the payroll module of the new system. Instead, the current payroll system will continue to be

used. Of the following, who should own the risk if the ERP and payroll system fail to operate as expected?

A.

The business owner

B.

The ERP administrator

C.

The project steering committee

D.

The IT project manager

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Question # 101

A new policy has been published to forbid copying of data onto removable media. Which type of control has been implemented?

A.

Preventive

B.

Detective

C.

Directive

D.

Deterrent

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Question # 102

An organization has identified that terminated employee accounts are not disabled or deleted within the time required by corporate policy. Unsure of the reason, the organization has decided to monitor the situation for three months to obtain more information. As a result of this decision, the risk has been:

A.

avoided.

B.

accepted.

C.

mitigated.

D.

transferred.

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Question # 103

Who is MOST likely to be responsible for the coordination between the IT risk strategy and the business risk strategy?

A.

Chief financial officer

B.

Information security director

C.

Internal audit director

D.

Chief information officer

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Question # 104

Which of the following is the MOST important enabler of effective risk management?

A.

User awareness of policies and procedures

B.

Implementation of proper controls

C.

Senior management support

D.

Continuous monitoring of threats and vulnerabilities

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Question # 105

Which of the following is MOST important when developing risk scenarios?

A.

The scenarios are based on industry best practice.

B.

The scenarios focus on current vulnerabilities.

C.

The scenarios are relevant to the organization.

D.

The scenarios include technical consequences.

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Question # 106

Which of the following could BEST detect an in-house developer inserting malicious functions into a web-based application?

A.

Segregation of duties

B.

Code review

C.

Change management

D.

Audit modules

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Question # 107

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for conducting peer reviews of risk analysis?

A.

To enhance compliance with standards

B.

To minimize subjectivity of assessments

C.

To increase consensus among peers

D.

To provide assessments for benchmarking

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Question # 108

Which of the following will provide the BEST measure of compliance with IT policies?

A.

Evaluate past policy review reports.

B.

Conduct regular independent reviews.

C.

Perform penetration testing.

D.

Test staff on their compliance responsibilities.

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Question # 109

Which of the following BEST enables the integration of IT risk management across an organization?

A.

Enterprise risk management (ERM) framework

B.

Enterprise-wide risk awareness training

C.

Robust risk reporting practices

D.

Risk management policies

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Question # 110

Which of the following is MOST important when determining risk appetite?

A.

Assessing regulatory requirements

B.

Benchmarking against industry standards

C.

Gaining management consensus

D.

Identifying risk tolerance

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Question # 111

Which of the following is MOST influential when management makes risk response decisions?

A.

Risk appetite

B.

Audit risk

C.

Residual risk

D.

Detection risk

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Question # 112

Which of the following BEST supports the communication of risk assessment results to stakeholders?

A.

Monitoring of high-risk areas

B.

Classification of risk profiles

C.

Periodic review of the risk register

D.

Assignment of risk ownership

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Question # 113

A business manager wants to leverage an existing approved vendor solution from another area within the organization. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Recommend allowing the new usage based on prior approval.

B.

Request a new third-party review.

C.

Request revalidation of the original use case.

D.

Assess the risk associated with the new use case.

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Question # 114

Which of the following factors will have the GREATEST impact on the implementation of a risk mitigation strategy for an organization?

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Known vulnerabilities

D.

Cyber insurance

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Question # 115

Which of the following is the PRIMARY factor in determining a recovery time objective (RTO)?

A.

Cost of offsite backup premises

B.

Cost of downtime due to a disaster

C.

Cost of testing the business continuity plan

D.

Response time of the emergency action plan

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Question # 116

Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of engaging the risk owner during the risk assessment process?

A.

Identification of controls gaps that may lead to noncompliance

B.

Prioritization of risk action plans across departments

C.

Early detection of emerging threats

D.

Accurate measurement of loss impact

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Question # 117

An organization has allowed its cyber risk insurance to lapse while seeking a new insurance provider. The risk practitioner should report to management that the risk has been:

A.

transferred

B.

mitigated.

C.

accepted

D.

avoided

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Question # 118

IT management has asked for a consolidated view into the organization's risk profile to enable project prioritization and resource allocation. Which of the following materials would

be MOST helpful?

A.

IT risk register

B.

List of key risk indicators

C.

Internal audit reports

D.

List of approved projects

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Question # 119

Which of the following is the BEST method to ensure a terminated employee's access to IT systems is revoked upon departure from the organization?

A.

Login attempts are reconciled to a list of terminated employees.

B.

A list of terminated employees is generated for reconciliation against current IT access.

C.

A process to remove employee access during the exit interview is implemented.

D.

The human resources (HR) system automatically revokes system access.

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Question # 120

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when implementing controls for monitoring user activity logs?

A.

Ensuring availability of resources for log analysis

B.

Implementing log analysis tools to automate controls

C.

Ensuring the control is proportional to the risk

D.

Building correlations between logs collected from different sources

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Question # 121

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when sharing risk management updates with executive management?

A.

Using an aggregated view of organizational risk

B.

Ensuring relevance to organizational goals

C.

Relying on key risk indicator (KRI) data Including

D.

Trend analysis of risk metrics

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Question # 122

An organization has procured a managed hosting service and just discovered the location is likely to be flooded every 20 years. Of the following, who should be notified of this new information FIRST.

A.

The risk owner who also owns the business service enabled by this infrastructure

B.

The data center manager who is also employed under the managed hosting services contract

C.

The site manager who is required to provide annual risk assessments under the contract

D.

The chief information officer (CIO) who is responsible for the hosted services

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Question # 123

The MOST important measure of the effectiveness of risk management in project implementation is the percentage of projects:

A.

introduced into production without high-risk issues.

B.

having the risk register updated regularly.

C.

having key risk indicators (KRIs) established to measure risk.

D.

having an action plan to remediate overdue issues.

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Question # 124

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of having a mature enterprise architecture (EA) in place?

A.

Standards-based policies

B.

Audit readiness

C.

Efficient operations

D.

Regulatory compliance

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Question # 125

A risk practitioner has been asked to evaluate a new cloud-based service to enhance an organization's access management capabilities. When is the BEST time for the risk practitioner to provide opinions on control strength?

A.

After the initial design

B.

Before production rollout

C.

After a few weeks in use

D.

Before end-user testing

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Question # 126

Which of the following potential scenarios associated with the implementation of a new database technology presents the GREATEST risk to an organization?

A.

The organization may not have a sufficient number of skilled resources.

B.

Application and data migration cost for backups may exceed budget.

C.

Data may not be recoverable due to system failures.

D.

The database system may not be scalable in the future.

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Question # 127

An organization has restructured its business processes, and the business continuity plan (BCP) needs to be revised accordingly. Which of the following should be identified FIRST?

A.

Variances in recovery times

B.

Ownership assignment for controls

C.

New potentially disruptive scenarios

D.

Contractual changes with customers

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Question # 128

Improvements in the design and implementation of a control will MOST likely result in an update to:

A.

inherent risk.

B.

residual risk.

C.

risk appetite

D.

risk tolerance

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Question # 129

Which of the following is the PRIMARY responsibility of the first line of defense related to computer-enabled fraud?

A.

Providing oversight of risk management processes

B.

Implementing processes to detect and deter fraud

C.

Ensuring that risk and control assessments consider fraud

D.

Monitoring the results of actions taken to mitigate fraud

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Question # 130

An IT license audit has revealed that there are several unlicensed copies of co be to:

A.

immediately uninstall the unlicensed software from the laptops

B.

centralize administration rights on laptops so that installations are controlled

C.

report the issue to management so appropriate action can be taken.

D.

procure the requisite licenses for the software to minimize business impact.

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Question # 131

During a control review, the control owner states that an existing control has deteriorated over time. What is the BEST recommendation to the control owner?

A.

Implement compensating controls to reduce residual risk

B.

Escalate the issue to senior management

C.

Discuss risk mitigation options with the risk owner.

D.

Certify the control after documenting the concern.

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Question # 132

A payroll manager discovers that fields in certain payroll reports have been modified without authorization. Which of the following control weaknesses could have contributed MOST to this problem?

A.

The user requirements were not documented.

B.

Payroll files were not under the control of a librarian.

C.

The programmer had access to the production programs.

D.

The programmer did not involve the user in testing.

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Question # 133

What is the MOST important consideration when aligning IT risk management with the enterprise risk management (ERM) framework?

A.

Risk and control ownership

B.

Senior management participation

C.

Business unit support

D.

Risk nomenclature and taxonomy

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Question # 134

Which of the following BEST indicates that an organizations risk management program is effective?

A.

Fewer security incidents have been reported.

B.

The number of audit findings has decreased.

C.

Residual risk is reduced.

D.

inherent risk Is unchanged.

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Question # 135

Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of the board of directors in corporate risk governance?

A.

Approving operational strategies and objectives

B.

Monitoring the results of actions taken to mitigate risk

C.

Ensuring the effectiveness of the risk management program

D.

Ensuring risk scenarios are identified and recorded in the risk register

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Question # 136

Which of the following is MOST important for effective communication of a risk profile to relevant stakeholders?

A.

Emphasizing risk in the risk profile that is related to critical business activities

B.

Customizing the presentation of the risk profile to the intended audience

C.

Including details of risk with high deviation from the risk appetite

D.

Providing information on the efficiency of controls for risk mitigation

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Question # 137

A risk practitioner is organizing a training session lo communicate risk assessment methodologies to ensure a consistent risk view within the organization Which of the following i< the MOST important topic to cover in this training?

A.

Applying risk appetite

B.

Applying risk factors

C.

Referencing risk event data

D.

Understanding risk culture

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Question # 138

Which of the following would BEST provide early warning of a high-risk condition?

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

D.

Key performance indicator (KPI)

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Question # 139

Which of the following is MOST critical when designing controls?

A.

Involvement of internal audit

B.

Involvement of process owner

C.

Quantitative impact of the risk

D.

Identification of key risk indicators

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Question # 140

Who is the MOST appropriate owner for newly identified IT risk?

A.

The manager responsible for IT operations that will support the risk mitigation efforts

B.

The individual with authority to commit organizational resources to mitigate the risk

C.

A project manager capable of prioritizing the risk remediation efforts

D.

The individual with the most IT risk-related subject matter knowledge

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Question # 141

Which of the following is MOST important when developing key performance indicators (KPIs)?

A.

Alignment to risk responses

B.

Alignment to management reports

C.

Alerts when risk thresholds are reached

D.

Identification of trends

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Question # 142

Which of the following would be the BEST recommendation if the level of risk in the IT risk profile has decreased and is now below management's risk appetite?

A.

Optimize the control environment.

B.

Realign risk appetite to the current risk level.

C.

Decrease the number of related risk scenarios.

D.

Reduce the risk management budget.

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Question # 143

What is the BEST information to present to business control owners when justifying costs related to controls?

A.

Loss event frequency and magnitude

B.

The previous year's budget and actuals

C.

Industry benchmarks and standards

D.

Return on IT security-related investments

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Question # 144

During a risk assessment, the risk practitioner finds a new risk scenario without controls has been entered into the risk register. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action?

A.

Include the new risk scenario in the current risk assessment.

B.

Postpone the risk assessment until controls are identified.

C.

Request the risk scenario be removed from the register.

D.

Exclude the new risk scenario from the current risk assessment

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Question # 145

An organization maintains independent departmental risk registers that are not automatically aggregated. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern?

A.

Management may be unable to accurately evaluate the risk profile.

B.

Resources may be inefficiently allocated.

C.

The same risk factor may be identified in multiple areas.

D.

Multiple risk treatment efforts may be initiated to treat a given risk.

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Question # 146

Which of the following would be of GREATEST concern regarding an organization's asset management?

A.

Lack of a mature records management program

B.

Lack of a dedicated asset management team

C.

Decentralized asset lists

D.

Incomplete asset inventory

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Question # 147

Of the following, who is responsible for approval when a change in an application system is ready for release to production?

A.

Information security officer

B.

IT risk manager

C.

Business owner

D.

Chief risk officer (CRO)

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Question # 148

Which of the following would be of MOST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing risk action plans for documented IT risk scenarios?

A.

Individuals outside IT are managing action plans for the risk scenarios.

B.

Target dates for completion are missing from some action plans.

C.

Senior management approved multiple changes to several action plans.

D.

Many action plans were discontinued after senior management accepted the risk.

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Question # 149

Which of the following, who should be PRIMARILY responsible for performing user entitlement reviews?

A.

IT security manager

B.

IT personnel

C.

Data custodian

D.

Data owner

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Question # 150

A zero-day vulnerability has been discovered in a globally used brand of hardware server that allows hackers to gain

access to affected IT systems. Which of the following is MOST likely to change as a result of this situation?

A.

Control effectiveness

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk likelihood

D.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

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Question # 151

Which of the following is the MOST important outcome of a business impact analysis (BIA)?

A.

Understanding and prioritization of critical processes

B.

Completion of the business continuity plan (BCP)

C.

Identification of regulatory consequences

D.

Reduction of security and business continuity threats

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Question # 152

Which of the following should be of MOST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing an organization risk register after the completion of a series of risk assessments?

A.

Several risk action plans have missed target completion dates.

B.

Senior management has accepted more risk than usual.

C.

Risk associated with many assets is only expressed in qualitative terms.

D.

Many risk scenarios are owned by the same senior manager.

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Question # 153

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure adequate resources will be allocated to manage identified risk?

A.

Prioritizing risk within each business unit

B.

Reviewing risk ranking methodology

C.

Promoting an organizational culture of risk awareness

D.

Assigning risk ownership to appropriate roles

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Question # 154

Which of the following is the MOST effective way 10 identify an application backdoor prior to implementation'?

A.

User acceptance testing (UAT)

B.

Database activity monitoring

C.

Source code review

D.

Vulnerability analysis

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Question # 155

Which of the following contributes MOST to the effective implementation of risk responses?

A.

Clear understanding of the risk

B.

Comparable industry risk trends

C.

Appropriate resources

D.

Detailed standards and procedures

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Question # 156

Which of the following is the BEST method of creating risk awareness in an organization?

A.

Marking the risk register available to project stakeholders

B.

Ensuring senior management commitment to risk training

C.

Providing regular communication to risk managers

D.

Appointing the risk manager from the business units

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Question # 157

Who is BEST suited to provide objective input when updating residual risk to reflect the results of control effectiveness?

A.

Control owner

B.

Risk owner

C.

Internal auditor

D.

Compliance manager

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Question # 158

Which of the following is the MAIN purpose of monitoring risk?

A.

Communication

B.

Risk analysis

C.

Decision support

D.

Benchmarking

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Question # 159

Which of the following is the MOST important requirement for monitoring key risk indicators (KRls) using log analysis?

A.

Obtaining logs m an easily readable format

B.

Providing accurate logs m a timely manner

C.

Collecting logs from the entire set of IT systems

D.

implementing an automated log analysis tool

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Question # 160

A business unit is updating a risk register with assessment results for a key project. Which of the following is MOST important to capture in the register?

A.

The team that performed the risk assessment

B.

An assigned risk manager to provide oversight

C.

Action plans to address risk scenarios requiring treatment

D.

The methodology used to perform the risk assessment

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Question # 161

Establishing and organizational code of conduct is an example of which type of control?

A.

Preventive

B.

Directive

C.

Detective

D.

Compensating

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Question # 162

An organization is outsourcing a key database to be hosted by an external service provider. Who is BEST suited to assess the impact of potential data loss?

A.

Database manager

B.

Public relations manager

C.

Data privacy manager

D.

Business manager

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Question # 163

An organization has made a decision to purchase a new IT system. During when phase of the system development life cycle (SDLC) will identified risk MOST likely lead to architecture and design trade-offs?

A.

Acquisition

B.

Implementation

C.

Initiation

D.

Operation and maintenance

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Question # 164

Which of the following roles would provide the MOST important input when identifying IT risk scenarios?

A.

Information security managers

B.

Internal auditors

C.

Business process owners

D.

Operational risk managers

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Question # 165

An organization recently configured a new business division Which of the following is MOST likely to be affected?

A.

Risk profile

B.

Risk culture

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk tolerance

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Question # 166

Which organizational role should be accountable for ensuring information assets are appropriately classified?

A.

Data protection officer

B.

Chief information officer (CIO)

C.

Information asset custodian

D.

Information asset owner

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Question # 167

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner's NEXT step upon learning the impact of an organization's noncompliance with a specific legal regulation?

A.

Identify risk response options.

B.

Implement compensating controls.

C.

Invoke the incident response plan.

D.

Document the penalties for noncompliance.

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Question # 168

Which of the following aspects of an IT risk and control self-assessment would be MOST important to include in a report to senior management?

A.

Changes in control design

B.

A decrease in the number of key controls

C.

Changes in control ownership

D.

An increase in residual risk

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Question # 169

When collecting information to identify IT-related risk, a risk practitioner should FIRST focus on IT:

A.

risk appetite.

B.

security policies

C.

process maps.

D.

risk tolerance level

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Question # 170

Which of the following is the MOST critical factor to consider when determining an organization's risk appetite?

A.

Fiscal management practices

B.

Business maturity

C.

Budget for implementing security

D.

Management culture

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Question # 171

An organization has decided to implement an emerging technology and incorporate the new capabilities into its strategic business plan. Business operations for the technology will be outsourced. What will be the risk practitioner's PRIMARY role during the change?

A.

Managing third-party risk

B.

Developing risk scenarios

C.

Managing the threat landscape

D.

Updating risk appetite

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Question # 172

An organization has outsourced its backup and recovery procedures to a third-party cloud provider. Which of the following is the risk practitioner s BEST course of action?

A.

Accept the risk and document contingency plans for data disruption.

B.

Remove the associated risk scenario from the risk register due to avoidance.

C.

Mitigate the risk with compensating controls enforced by the third-party cloud provider.

D.

Validate the transfer of risk and update the register to reflect the change.

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Question # 173

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to update a risk register with risk assessment results?

A.

To communicate the level and priority of assessed risk to management

B.

To provide a comprehensive inventory of risk across the organization

C.

To assign a risk owner to manage the risk

D.

To enable the creation of action plans to address nsk

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Question # 174

When reviewing a risk response strategy, senior management's PRIMARY focus should be placed on the:

A.

cost-benefit analysis.

B.

investment portfolio.

C.

key performance indicators (KPIs).

D.

alignment with risk appetite.

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Question # 175

When updating a risk register with the results of an IT risk assessment, the risk practitioner should log:

A.

high impact scenarios.

B.

high likelihood scenarios.

C.

treated risk scenarios.

D.

known risk scenarios.

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Question # 176

Which of the following is the MOST comprehensive resource for prioritizing the implementation of information systems controls?

A.

Data classification policy

B.

Emerging technology trends

C.

The IT strategic plan

D.

The risk register

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Question # 177

Which of the following is MOST useful input when developing risk scenarios?

A.

Common attacks in other industries.

B.

Identification of risk events.

C.

Impact on critical assets.

D.

Probability of disruptive risk events.

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Question # 178

Which of the following BEST enables senior management lo compare the ratings of risk scenarios?

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

C.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

D.

Risk heat map

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Question # 179

The PRIMARY reason a risk practitioner would be interested in an internal audit report is to:

A.

plan awareness programs for business managers.

B.

evaluate maturity of the risk management process.

C.

assist in the development of a risk profile.

D.

maintain a risk register based on noncompliance.

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Question # 180

A business unit is updating a risk register with assessment results for a key project. Which of the following is MOST important to capture in the register?

A.

The methodology used to perform the risk assessment

B.

Action plans to address risk scenarios requiring treatment

C.

Date and status of the last project milestone

D.

The individuals assigned ownership of controls

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Question # 181

An organization recently implemented new technologies that enable the use of robotic process automation. Which of the following is MOST important to reassess?

A.

Risk profile

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Risk capacity

D.

Risk appetite

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Question # 182

Which of the following is the PRIMARY risk management responsibility of the second line of defense?

A.

Providing assurance of control effectiveness

B.

Implementing internal controls

C.

Monitoring risk responses

D.

Applying risk treatments

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Question # 183

Which of the following is the BEST recommendation of a risk practitioner for an organization that recently changed its organizational structure?

A.

Communicate the new risk profile.

B.

Implement a new risk assessment process.

C.

Revalidate the corporate risk appetite.

D.

Review and adjust key risk indicators (KRIs).

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Question # 184

A global organization has implemented an application that does not address all privacy requirements across multiple jurisdictions. Which of the following risk responses has the organization adopted with regard to privacy requirements?

A.

Risk avoidance

B.

Risk transfer

C.

Risk mitigation

D.

Risk acceptance

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Question # 185

After an annual risk assessment is completed, which of the following would be MOST important to communicate to stakeholders?

A.

A decrease in threats

B.

A change in the risk profile

C.

An increase in reported vulnerabilities

D.

An increase in identified risk scenarios

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Question # 186

Which of the following is of GREATEST concern when uncontrolled changes are made to the control environment?

A.

A decrease in control layering effectiveness

B.

An increase in inherent risk

C.

An increase in control vulnerabilities

D.

An increase in the level of residual risk

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Question # 187

Which of the following is the BEST way to validate the results of a vulnerability assessment?

A.

Perform a penetration test.

B.

Review security logs.

C.

Conduct a threat analysis.

D.

Perform a root cause analysis.

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Question # 188

Which of the following is the MOST important benefit of implementing a data classification program?

A.

Reduction in data complexity

B.

Reduction in processing times

C.

Identification of appropriate ownership

D.

Identification of appropriate controls

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Question # 189

Which of the following would BEST help to ensure that suspicious network activity is identified?

A.

Analyzing intrusion detection system (IDS) logs

B.

Analyzing server logs

C.

Using a third-party monitoring provider

D.

Coordinating events with appropriate agencies

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Question # 190

Which of the following would BEST help to ensure that identified risk is efficiently managed?

A.

Reviewing the maturity of the control environment

B.

Regularly monitoring the project plan

C.

Maintaining a key risk indicator for each asset in the risk register

D.

Periodically reviewing controls per the risk treatment plan

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Question # 191

Which of the following is MOST helpful in providing a high-level overview of current IT risk severity*?

A.

Risk mitigation plans

B.

heat map

C.

Risk appetite statement

D.

Key risk indicators (KRls)

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Question # 192

Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate the risk associated with fraudulent use of an enterprise's brand on Internet sites?

A.

Utilizing data loss prevention (DLP) technology

B.

Monitoring the enterprise's use of the Internet

C.

Scanning the Internet to search for unauthorized usage

D.

Developing training and awareness campaigns

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Question # 193

An organization is measuring the effectiveness of its change management program to reduce the number of unplanned production changes. Which of the following would be the BEST metric to determine if the program is performing as expected?

A.

Decrease in the time to move changes to production

B.

Ratio of emergency fixes to total changes

C.

Ratio of system changes to total changes

D.

Decrease in number of changes without a fallback plan

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Question # 194

Following a significant change to a business process, a risk practitioner believes the associated risk has been reduced. The risk practitioner should advise the risk owner to FIRST

A.

review the key risk indicators.

B.

conduct a risk analysis.

C.

update the risk register

D.

reallocate risk response resources.

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Question # 195

Which of the following should a risk practitioner do FIRST when an organization decides to use a cloud service?

A.

Review the vendor selection process and vetting criteria.

B.

Assess whether use of service falls within risk tolerance thresholds.

C.

Establish service level agreements (SLAs) with the vendor.

D.

Check the contract for appropriate security risk and control provisions.

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Question # 196

An organization has implemented a system capable of comprehensive employee monitoring. Which of the following should direct how the system is used?

A.

Organizational strategy

B.

Employee code of conduct

C.

Industry best practices

D.

Organizational policy

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Question # 197

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner’s BEST recommendation upon learning of an updated cybersecurity regulation that could impact the organization?

A.

Perform a gap analysis

B.

Conduct system testing

C.

Implement compensating controls

D.

Update security policies

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Question # 198

An organization is implementing robotic process automation (RPA) to streamline business processes. Given that implementation of this technology is expected to impact existing controls, which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Reassess whether mitigating controls address the known risk in the processes.

B.

Update processes to address the new technology.

C.

Update the data governance policy to address the new technology.

D.

Perform a gap analysis of the impacted processes.

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Question # 199

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of creating and documenting control procedures?

A.

To facilitate ongoing audit and control testing

B.

To help manage risk to acceptable tolerance levels

C.

To establish and maintain a control inventory

D.

To increase the likelihood of effective control operation

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Question # 200

Which of the following would be the result of a significant increase in the motivation of a malicious threat actor?

A.

Increase in mitigating control costs

B.

Increase in risk event impact

C.

Increase in risk event likelihood

D.

Increase in cybersecurity premium

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Question # 201

Recovery the objectives (RTOs) should be based on

A.

minimum tolerable downtime

B.

minimum tolerable loss of data.

C.

maximum tolerable downtime.

D.

maximum tolerable loss of data

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Question # 202

Which of the following is the ULTIMATE objective of utilizing key control indicators (KCIs) in the risk management process?

A.

To provide insight into the effectiveness of the internal control environment

B.

To provide a basis for determining the criticality of risk mitigation controls

C.

To provide benchmarks for assessing control design effectiveness against industry peers

D.

To provide early warning signs of a potential change in risk level

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Question # 203

Because of a potential data breach, an organization has decided to temporarily shut down its online sales order system until sufficient controls can be implemented. Which risk treatment has been selected?

A.

Avoidance

B.

Transfer

C.

Mitigation

D.

Acceptance

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Question # 204

A risk practitioner has been notified of a social engineering attack using artificial intelligence (Al) technology to impersonate senior management personnel. Which of the following would BEST mitigate the impact of such attacks?

A.

Training and awareness of employees for increased vigilance

B.

Increased monitoring of executive accounts

C.

Subscription to data breach monitoring sites

D.

Suspension and takedown of malicious domains or accounts

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Question # 205

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of incorporating IT risk scenarios into the corporate risk register?

A.

Corporate incident escalation protocols are established.

B.

Exposure is integrated into the organization's risk profile.

C.

Risk appetite cascades to business unit management

D.

The organization-wide control budget is expanded.

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Question # 206

Which of the following is MOST important when identifying an organization's risk exposure associated with Internet of Things (loT) devices?

A.

Defined remediation plans

B.

Management sign-off on the scope

C.

Manual testing of device vulnerabilities

D.

Visibility into all networked devices

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Question # 207

A risk practitioner learns that a risk owner has been accepting gifts from a supplier of IT products. Some of these IT products are used to implement controls and to mitigate risk to acceptable levels. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

A.

Initiate disciplinary action against the risk owner.

B.

Reassess the risk and review the underlying controls.

C.

Review organizational ethics policies.

D.

Report the activity to the supervisor.

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Question # 208

Which of the following should be considered FIRST when creating a comprehensive IT risk register?

A.

Risk management budget

B.

Risk mitigation policies

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk analysis techniques

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Question # 209

A business impact analysis (BIA) has documented the duration of maximum allowable outage for each of an organization's applications. Which of the following MUST be aligned with the maximum allowable outage?

A.

Mean time to restore (MTTR)

B.

Recovery time objective (RTO)

C.

Recovery point objective (RPO)

D.

Mean time to detect (MTTD)

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Question # 210

An organization wants to transfer risk by purchasing cyber insurance. Which of the following would be MOST important for the risk practitioner to communicate to senior management for contract negotiation purposes?

A.

Most recent IT audit report results

B.

Replacement cost of IT assets

C.

Current annualized loss expectancy report

D.

Cyber insurance industry benchmarking report

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Question # 211

A service organization is preparing to adopt an IT control framework to comply with the contractual requirements of a new client. Which of the following would be MOST helpful to the risk practitioner?

A.

Negotiating terms of adoption

B.

Understanding the timeframe to implement

C.

Completing a gap analysis

D.

Initiating the conversion

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Question # 212

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of updating the risk register to include outcomes from a risk assessment?

A.

It maintains evidence of compliance with risk policy.

B.

It facilitates timely risk-based decisions.

C.

It validates the organization's risk appetite.

D.

It helps to mitigate internal and external risk factors.

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Question # 213

Which of the following should be of MOST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing the system development life cycle (SDLC)?

A.

Testing is completed in phases, with user testing scheduled as the final phase.

B.

Segregation of duties controls are overridden during user testing phases.

C.

Data anonymization is used during all cycles of end-user testing.

D.

Testing is completed by IT support users without input from end users.

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Question # 214

Which of the following would present the GREATEST challenge for a risk practitioner during a merger of two organizations?

A.

Variances between organizational risk appetites

B.

Different taxonomies to categorize risk scenarios

C.

Disparate platforms for governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) systems

D.

Dissimilar organizational risk acceptance protocols

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Question # 215

Which of the following management actions will MOST likely change the likelihood rating of a risk scenario related to remote network access?

A.

Creating metrics to track remote connections

B.

Updating the organizational policy for remote access

C.

Updating remote desktop software

D.

Implementing multi-factor authentication

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Question # 216

Which of the following is the PRIMARY advantage of having a single integrated business continuity plan (BCP) rather than each business unit developing its own BCP?

A.

It provides assurance of timely business process response and effectiveness.

B.

It supports effective use of resources and provides reasonable confidence of recoverability.

C.

It enables effective BCP maintenance and updates to reflect organizational changes.

D.

It decreases the risk of downtime and operational losses in the event of a disruption.

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Question # 217

A risk practitioner has established that a particular control is working as desired, but the annual cost of maintenance has increased and now exceeds the expected annual loss exposure. The result is that the control is:

A.

mature

B.

ineffective.

C.

optimized.

D.

inefficient.

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Question # 218

Which of the following would BEST indicate to senior management that IT processes are improving?

A.

Changes in the number of security exceptions

B.

Changes to the structure of the risk register

C.

Changes in the number of intrusions detected

D.

Changes in the position in the maturity model

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Question # 219

When determining risk ownership, the MAIN consideration should be:

A.

who owns the business process.

B.

the amount of residual risk.

C.

who is responsible for risk mitigation.

D.

the total cost of risk treatment.

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Question # 220

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of using a risk profile?

A.

It promotes a security-aware culture.

B.

It enables vulnerability analysis.

C.

It enhances internal risk reporting.

D.

It provides risk information to auditors.

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Question # 221

An organization's decision to remain noncompliant with certain laws or regulations is MOST likely influenced by:

A.

The region in which the organization operates.

B.

Established business culture.

C.

Risk appetite set by senior management.

D.

Identified business process controls.

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Question # 222

A risk practitioner's BEST guidance to help an organization develop relevant risk scenarios is to ensure the scenarios are:

A.

based on industry trends.

B.

mapped to incident response plans.

C.

related to probable events.

D.

aligned with risk management capabilities.

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Question # 223

A robotic process automation (RPA) project has implemented new robots to enhance the efficiency of a sales business process. Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that the new controls have been implemented successfully?

A.

A post-implementation review has been conducted by key personnel.

B.

A qualified independent party assessed the new controls as effective.

C.

Senior management has signed off on the design of the controls.

D.

Robots have operated without human interference on a daily basis.

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Question # 224

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of aggregating the impact of IT risk scenarios and reflecting the results in the enterprise risk register?

A.

To ensure IT risk appetite is communicated across the organization

B.

To ensure IT risk impact can be compared to the IT risk appetite

C.

To ensure IT risk ownership is assigned at the appropriate organizational level

D.

To ensure IT risk scenarios are consistently assessed within the organization

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Question # 225

Which of the following should a risk practitioner do NEXT after learning that Internet of Things (loT) devices installed in the production environment lack appropriate security controls for

sensitive data?

A.

Assess the threat and associated impact.

B.

Evaluate risk appetite and tolerance levels

C.

Recommend device management controls

D.

Enable role-based access control.

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Question # 226

An organization is moving its critical assets to the cloud. Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) to include in the service level agreement (SLA)?

A.

Percentage of standard supplier uptime

B.

Average time to respond to incidents

C.

Number of assets included in recovery processes

D.

Number of key applications hosted

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Question # 227

When confirming whether implemented controls are operating effectively, which of the following is MOST important to review?

A.

Results of benchmarking studies

B.

Results of risk assessments

C.

Number of emergency change requests

D.

Maturity model

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Question # 228

A failure in an organization s IT system build process has resulted in several computers on the network missing the corporate endpoint detection and response (EDR) software. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner’s IMMEDIATE concern?

A.

Multiple corporate build images exist.

B.

The process documentation was not updated.

C.

The IT build process was not followed.

D.

Threats are not being detected.

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Question # 229

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure implementation of corrective action plans?

A.

Contracting to third parties

B.

Establishing employee awareness training

C.

Setting target dates to complete actions

D.

Assigning accountability to risk owners

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Question # 230

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when determining the value of an asset during the risk identification process?

A.

The criticality of the asset

B.

The vulnerability profile of the asset

C.

The monetary value of the asset

D.

The size of the asset's user base

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Question # 231

Which of the following is the ULTIMATE goal of conducting a privacy impact analysis (PIA)?

A.

To identify gaps in data protection controls

B.

To develop a customer notification plan

C.

To identify personally identifiable information (Pll)

D.

To determine gaps in data identification processes

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Question # 232

Which of the following changes would be reflected in an organization's risk profile after the failure of a critical patch implementation?

A.

Risk appetite is decreased.

B.

Inherent risk is increased.

C.

Risk tolerance is decreased.

D.

Residual risk is increased.

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Question # 233

Who is ULTIMATELY accountable for risk treatment?

A.

Risk owner

B.

Enterprise risk management (ERM)

C.

Risk practitioner

D.

Control owner

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Question # 234

Which of the following should be accountable for ensuring that media containing financial information are adequately destroyed per an organization's data disposal policy?

A.

Compliance manager

B.

Data architect

C.

Data owner

D.

Chief information officer (CIO)

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Question # 235

Following an acquisition, the acquiring company's risk practitioner has been asked to update the organization's IT risk profile What is the MOST important information to review from the acquired company to facilitate this task?

A.

Internal and external audit reports

B.

Risk disclosures in financial statements

C.

Risk assessment and risk register

D.

Business objectives and strategies

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Question # 236

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for effectively maintaining a risk register?

A.

An IT owner is assigned for each risk scenario.

B.

The register is updated frequently.

C.

The register is shared with executive management.

D.

Compensating controls are identified.

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Question # 237

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when developing risk strategies?

A.

Organization's industry sector

B.

Long-term organizational goals

C.

Concerns of the business process owners

D.

History of risk events

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Question # 238

An organization has experienced a cyber-attack that exposed customer personally identifiable information (Pll) and caused extended outages of network services. Which of the following stakeholders are MOST important to include in the cyber response team to determine response actions?

A.

Security control owners based on control failures

B.

Cyber risk remediation plan owners

C.

Risk owners based on risk impact

D.

Enterprise risk management (ERM) team

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Question # 239

Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner when process documentation is incomplete?

A.

Inability to allocate resources efficiently

B.

Inability to identify the risk owner

C.

Inability to complete the risk register

D.

Inability to identify process experts

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Question # 240

Which of the following has the GREATEST influence on an organization's risk appetite?

A.

Threats and vulnerabilities

B.

Internal and external risk factors

C.

Business objectives and strategies

D.

Management culture and behavior

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Question # 241

A newly incorporated enterprise needs to secure its information assets From a governance perspective which of the following should be done FIRST?

A.

Define information retention requirements and policies

B.

Provide information security awareness training

C.

Establish security management processes and procedures

D.

Establish an inventory of information assets

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Question # 242

Which of the following is MOST important for maintaining the effectiveness of an IT risk register?

A.

Removing entries from the register after the risk has been treated

B.

Recording and tracking the status of risk response plans within the register

C.

Communicating the register to key stakeholders

D.

Performing regular reviews and updates to the register

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Question # 243

Which of the following would BEST mitigate an identified risk scenario?

A.

Conducting awareness training

B.

Executing a risk response plan

C.

Establishing an organization's risk tolerance

D.

Performing periodic audits

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Question # 244

A recent risk workshop has identified risk owners and responses for newly identified risk scenarios. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's NEXT step?

A.

Develop a mechanism for monitoring residual risk.

B.

Update the risk register with the results.

C.

Prepare a business case for the response options.

D.

Identify resources for implementing responses.

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Question # 245

An organization is concerned that its employees may be unintentionally disclosing data through the use of social media sites. Which of the following will MOST effectively mitigate tins risk?

A.

Requiring the use of virtual private networks (VPNs)

B.

Establishing a data classification policy

C.

Conducting user awareness training

D.

Requiring employee agreement of the acceptable use policy

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Question # 246

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when establishing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

High percentage of lagging indicators

B.

Nonexistent benchmark analysis

C.

Incomplete documentation for KRI monitoring

D.

Ineffective methods to assess risk

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Question # 247

Which of the following provides the MOST reliable evidence of a control's effectiveness?

A.

A risk and control self-assessment

B.

Senior management's attestation

C.

A system-generated testing report

D.

detailed process walk-through

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Question # 248

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of a three lines of defense structure?

A.

An effective risk culture that empowers employees to report risk

B.

Effective segregation of duties to prevent internal fraud

C.

Clear accountability for risk management processes

D.

Improved effectiveness and efficiency of business operations

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Question # 249

Which of the following is MOST helpful in defining an early-warning threshold associated with insufficient network bandwidth’’?

A.

Average bandwidth usage

B.

Peak bandwidth usage

C.

Total bandwidth usage

D.

Bandwidth used during business hours

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Question # 250

An organization is planning to move its application infrastructure from on-premises to the cloud. Which of the following is the BEST course of the actin to address the risk associated with data transfer if the relationship is terminated with the vendor?

A.

Meet with the business leaders to ensure the classification of their transferred data is in place

B.

Ensure the language in the contract explicitly states who is accountable for each step of the data transfer process

C.

Collect requirements for the environment to ensure the infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is configured appropriately.

D.

Work closely with the information security officer to ensure the company has the proper security controls in place.

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Question # 251

Which risk response strategy could management apply to both positive and negative risk that has been identified?

A.

Transfer

B.

Accept

C.

Exploit

D.

Mitigate

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Question # 252

Which of the following is the BEST method to identify unnecessary controls?

A.

Evaluating the impact of removing existing controls

B.

Evaluating existing controls against audit requirements

C.

Reviewing system functionalities associated with business processes

D.

Monitoring existing key risk indicators (KRIs)

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Question # 253

When using a third party to perform penetration testing, which of the following is the MOST important control to minimize operational impact?

A.

Perform a background check on the vendor.

B.

Require the vendor to sign a nondisclosure agreement.

C.

Require the vendor to have liability insurance.

D.

Clearly define the project scope

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Question # 254

Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) to establish in the service level agreement (SLA) for an outsourced data center?

A.

Percentage of systems included in recovery processes

B.

Number of key systems hosted

C.

Average response time to resolve system incidents

D.

Percentage of system availability

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Question # 255

Which of the following activities would BEST contribute to promoting an organization-wide risk-aware culture?

A.

Performing a benchmark analysis and evaluating gaps

B.

Conducting risk assessments and implementing controls

C.

Communicating components of risk and their acceptable levels

D.

Participating in peer reviews and implementing best practices

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Question # 256

It is MOST appropriate for changes to be promoted to production after they are:

A.

communicated to business management

B.

tested by business owners.

C.

approved by the business owner.

D.

initiated by business users.

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Question # 257

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when assessing the automation of control monitoring?

A.

impact due to failure of control

B.

Frequency of failure of control

C.

Contingency plan for residual risk

D.

Cost-benefit analysis of automation

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Question # 258

Which of the following BEST describes the role of the IT risk profile in strategic IT-related decisions?

A.

It compares performance levels of IT assets to value delivered.

B.

It facilitates the alignment of strategic IT objectives to business objectives.

C.

It provides input to business managers when preparing a business case for new IT projects.

D.

It helps assess the effects of IT decisions on risk exposure

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Question # 259

An audit reveals that several terminated employee accounts maintain access. Which of the following should be the FIRST step to address the risk?

A.

Perform a risk assessment

B.

Disable user access.

C.

Develop an access control policy.

D.

Perform root cause analysis.

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Question # 260

Which of the following is the FIRST step in managing the security risk associated with wearable technology in the workplace?

A.

Identify the potential risk.

B.

Monitor employee usage.

C.

Assess the potential risk.

D.

Develop risk awareness training.

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Question # 261

The MOST effective way to increase the likelihood that risk responses will be implemented is to:

A.

create an action plan

B.

assign ownership

C.

review progress reports

D.

perform regular audits.

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Question # 262

During a routine check, a system administrator identifies unusual activity indicating an intruder within a firewall. Which of the following controls has MOST likely been compromised?

A.

Data validation

B.

Identification

C.

Authentication

D.

Data integrity

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Question # 263

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to use global standards related to risk management?

A.

To build an organizational risk-aware culture

B.

To continuously improve risk management processes

C.

To comply with legal and regulatory requirements

D.

To identify gaps in risk management practices

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Question # 264

An organization is planning to engage a cloud-based service provider for some of its data-intensive business processes. Which of the following is MOST important to help define the IT risk associated with this outsourcing activity?

A.

Service level agreement

B.

Customer service reviews

C.

Scope of services provided

D.

Right to audit the provider

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Question # 265

Management has noticed storage costs have increased exponentially over the last 10 years because most users do not delete their emails. Which of the following can BEST alleviate this issue while not sacrificing security?

A.

Implementing record retention tools and techniques

B.

Establishing e-discovery and data loss prevention (DLP)

C.

Sending notifications when near storage quota

D.

Implementing a bring your own device 1BVOD) policy

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Question # 266

Which of the following changes would be reflected in an organization's risk profile after the failure of a critical patch implementation?

A.

Risk tolerance is decreased.

B.

Residual risk is increased.

C.

Inherent risk is increased.

D.

Risk appetite is decreased

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Question # 267

The head of a business operations department asks to review the entire IT risk register. Which of the following would be the risk manager s BEST approach to this request before sharing the register?

A.

Escalate to senior management

B.

Require a nondisclosure agreement.

C.

Sanitize portions of the register

D.

Determine the purpose of the request

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Question # 268

Which of the following is the BEST method for assessing control effectiveness?

A.

Ad hoc control reporting

B.

Control self-assessment

C.

Continuous monitoring

D.

Predictive analytics

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Question # 269

Which of the following would be MOST helpful when estimating the likelihood of negative events?

A.

Business impact analysis

B.

Threat analysis

C.

Risk response analysis

D.

Cost-benefit analysis

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Question # 270

An organization has determined a risk scenario is outside the defined risk tolerance level. What should be the NEXT course of action?

A.

Develop a compensating control.

B.

Allocate remediation resources.

C.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

D.

Identify risk responses

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Question # 271

Whether the results of risk analyses should be presented in quantitative or qualitative terms should be based PRIMARILY on the:

A.

requirements of management.

B.

specific risk analysis framework being used.

C.

organizational risk tolerance

D.

results of the risk assessment.

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Question # 272

Which of the following is MOST effective against external threats to an organizations confidential information?

A.

Single sign-on

B.

Data integrity checking

C.

Strong authentication

D.

Intrusion detection system

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Question # 273

Which of the following would be the BEST way to help ensure the effectiveness of a data loss prevention (DLP) control that has been implemented to prevent the loss of credit card data?

A.

Testing the transmission of credit card numbers

B.

Reviewing logs for unauthorized data transfers

C.

Configuring the DLP control to block credit card numbers

D.

Testing the DLP rule change control process

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Question # 274

A risk practitioner discovers several key documents detailing the design of a product currently in development have been posted on the Internet. What should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

A.

invoke the established incident response plan.

B.

Inform internal audit.

C.

Perform a root cause analysis

D.

Conduct an immediate risk assessment

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Question # 275

A risk practitioner has observed that there is an increasing trend of users sending sensitive information by email without using encryption. Which of the following would be the MOST effective approach to mitigate the risk associated with data loss?

A.

Implement a tool to create and distribute violation reports

B.

Raise awareness of encryption requirements for sensitive data.

C.

Block unencrypted outgoing emails which contain sensitive data.

D.

Implement a progressive disciplinary process for email violations.

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Question # 276

Which of the following risk register updates is MOST important for senior management to review?

A.

Extending the date of a future action plan by two months

B.

Retiring a risk scenario no longer used

C.

Avoiding a risk that was previously accepted

D.

Changing a risk owner

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Question # 277

The MOST important characteristic of an organization s policies is to reflect the organization's:

A.

risk assessment methodology.

B.

risk appetite.

C.

capabilities

D.

asset value.

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Question # 278

In an organization with a mature risk management program, which of the following would provide the BEST evidence that the IT risk profile is up to date?

A.

Risk questionnaire

B.

Risk register

C.

Management assertion

D.

Compliance manual

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Question # 279

A risk practitioner observes that hardware failure incidents have been increasing over the last few months. However, due to built-in redundancy and fault-tolerant architecture, there have been no interruptions to business operations. The risk practitioner should conclude that:

A.

a root cause analysis is required

B.

controls are effective for ensuring continuity

C.

hardware needs to be upgraded

D.

no action is required as there was no impact

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Question # 280

Which of the following is the MOST important factor affecting risk management in an organization?

A.

The risk manager's expertise

B.

Regulatory requirements

C.

Board of directors' expertise

D.

The organization's culture

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Question # 281

The risk associated with data loss from a website which contains sensitive customer information is BEST owned by:

A.

the third-party website manager

B.

the business process owner

C.

IT security

D.

the compliance manager

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Question # 282

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of an independent review of a risk management process?

A.

Accuracy of risk tolerance levels

B.

Consistency of risk process results

C.

Participation of stakeholders

D.

Maturity of the process

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Question # 283

Which of the following will BEST help ensure that risk factors identified during an information systems review are addressed?

A.

Informing business process owners of the risk

B.

Reviewing and updating the risk register

C.

Assigning action items and deadlines to specific individuals

D.

Implementing new control technologies

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Question # 284

Which of the following is the MAIN benefit of involving stakeholders in the selection of key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

Improving risk awareness

B.

Obtaining buy-in from risk owners

C.

Leveraging existing metrics

D.

Optimizing risk treatment decisions

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Question # 285

Which of the following will BEST communicate the importance of risk mitigation initiatives to senior management?

A.

Business case

B.

Balanced scorecard

C.

Industry standards

D.

Heat map

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Question # 286

Which of the following is a KEY responsibility of the second line of defense?

A.

Implementing control activities

B.

Monitoring control effectiveness

C.

Conducting control self-assessments

D.

Owning risk scenarios

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Question # 287

An upward trend in which of the following metrics should be of MOST concern?

A.

Number of business change management requests

B.

Number of revisions to security policy

C.

Number of security policy exceptions approved

D.

Number of changes to firewall rules

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Question # 288

Which of the following would be MOST beneficial as a key risk indicator (KRI)?

A.

Current capital allocation reserves

B.

Negative security return on investment (ROI)

C.

Project cost variances

D.

Annualized loss projections

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Question # 289

The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a vulnerability remediation program is the number of:

A.

vulnerability scans.

B.

recurring vulnerabilities.

C.

vulnerabilities remediated,

D.

new vulnerabilities identified.

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Question # 290

A maturity model will BEST indicate:

A.

confidentiality and integrity.

B.

effectiveness and efficiency.

C.

availability and reliability.

D.

certification and accreditation.

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Question # 291

Controls should be defined during the design phase of system development because:

A.

it is more cost-effective to determine controls in the early design phase.

B.

structured analysis techniques exclude identification of controls.

C.

structured programming techniques require that controls be designed before coding begins.

D.

technical specifications are defined during this phase.

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Question # 292

Which of these documents is MOST important to request from a cloud service

provider during a vendor risk assessment?

A.

Nondisclosure agreement (NDA)

B.

Independent audit report

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Service level agreement (SLA)

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Question # 293

The purpose of requiring source code escrow in a contractual agreement is to:

A.

ensure that the source code is valid and exists.

B.

ensure that the source code is available if the vendor ceases to exist.

C.

review the source code for adequacy of controls.

D.

ensure the source code is available when bugs occur.

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Question # 294

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help ensure an organization's current risk scenarios are relevant?

A.

Adoption of industry best practices

B.

Involvement of stakeholders in risk assessment

C.

Review of risk scenarios by independent parties

D.

Documentation of potential risk in business cases

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Question # 295

A new regulator/ requirement imposes severe fines for data leakage involving customers' personally identifiable information (Pll). The risk practitioner has recommended avoiding the risk. Which of the following actions would BEST align with this recommendation?

A.

Reduce retention periods for Pll data.

B.

Move Pll to a highly-secured outsourced site.

C.

Modify business processes to stop collecting Pll.

D.

Implement strong encryption for Pll.

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Question # 296

Read" rights to application files in a controlled server environment should be approved by the:

A.

business process owner.

B.

database administrator.

C.

chief information officer.

D.

systems administrator.

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Question # 297

It is MOST important to the effectiveness of an IT risk management function that the associated processes are:

A.

aligned to an industry-accepted framework.

B.

reviewed and approved by senior management.

C.

periodically assessed against regulatory requirements.

D.

updated and monitored on a continuous basis.

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Question # 298

During the initial risk identification process for a business application, it is MOST important to include which of the following stakeholders?

A.

Business process owners

B.

Business process consumers

C.

Application architecture team

D.

Internal audit

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Question # 299

A department has been granted an exception to bypass the existing approval process for purchase orders. The risk practitioner should verify the exception has been approved by which of the following?

A.

Internal audit

B.

Control owner

C.

Senior management

D.

Risk manager

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Question # 300

Which of the following provides the MOST helpful information in identifying risk in an organization?

A.

Risk registers

B.

Risk analysis

C.

Risk scenarios

D.

Risk responses

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Question # 301

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with the use of data analytics?

A.

Distributed data sources

B.

Manual data extraction

C.

Incorrect data selection

D.

Excessive data volume

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Question # 302

The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a vendor risk management program is the percentage of:

A.

vendors providing risk assessments on time.

B.

vendor contracts reviewed in the past year.

C.

vendor risk mitigation action items completed on time.

D.

vendors that have reported control-related incidents.

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Question # 303

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner’s MOST important consideration when developing IT risk scenarios?

A.

The impact of controls on the efficiency of the business in delivering services

B.

Linkage of identified risk scenarios with enterprise risk management

C.

Potential threats and vulnerabilities that may have an impact on the business

D.

Results of network vulnerability scanning and penetration testing

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Question # 304

Which of the following is the BEST approach for performing a business impact analysis (BIA) of a supply-chain management application?

A.

Reviewing the organization's policies and procedures

B.

Interviewing groups of key stakeholders

C.

Circulating questionnaires to key internal stakeholders

D.

Accepting IT personnel s view of business issues

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Question # 305

The risk appetite for an organization could be derived from which of the following?

A.

Cost of controls

B.

Annual loss expectancy (ALE)

C.

Inherent risk

D.

Residual risk

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Question # 306

Which of the following should be included in a risk assessment report to BEST facilitate senior management's understanding of the results?

A.

Benchmarking parameters likely to affect the results

B.

Tools and techniques used by risk owners to perform the assessments

C.

A risk heat map with a summary of risk identified and assessed

D.

The possible impact of internal and external risk factors on the assessment results

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Question # 307

What is MOST important for the risk practitioner to understand when creating an initial IT risk register?

A.

Enterprise architecture (EA)

B.

Control environment

C.

IT objectives

D.

Organizational objectives

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Question # 308

Which of the following is MOST helpful in determining the effectiveness of an organization's IT risk mitigation efforts?

A.

Assigning identification dates for risk scenarios in the risk register

B.

Updating impact assessments for risk scenario

C.

Verifying whether risk action plans have been completed

D.

Reviewing key risk indicators (KRIS)

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Question # 309

A risk practitioner has just learned about new done FIRST?

A.

Notify executive management.

B.

Analyze the impact to the organization.

C.

Update the IT risk register.

D.

Design IT risk mitigation plans.

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Question # 310

The PRIMARY purpose of using control metrics is to evaluate the:

A.

amount of risk reduced by compensating controls.

B.

amount of risk present in the organization.

C.

variance against objectives.

D.

number of incidents.

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Question # 311

Which of the following would be the BEST justification to invest in the development of a governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) solution?

A.

Facilitating risk-aware decision making by stakeholders

B.

Demonstrating management commitment to mitigate risk

C.

Closing audit findings on a timely basis

D.

Ensuring compliance to industry standards

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Question # 312

The implementation of a risk treatment plan will exceed the resources originally allocated for the risk response. Which of the following should be the risk owner's NEXT action?

A.

Perform a risk assessment.

B.

Accept the risk of not implementing.

C.

Escalate to senior management.

D.

Update the implementation plan.

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Question # 313

Which of the following BEST enables the risk profile to serve as an effective resource to support business objectives?

A.

Engaging external risk professionals to periodically review the risk

B.

Prioritizing global standards over local requirements in the risk profile

C.

Updating the risk profile with risk assessment results

D.

Assigning quantitative values to qualitative metrics in the risk register

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Question # 314

Which of the following is MOST important for developing effective key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

Engaging sponsorship by senior management

B.

Utilizing data and resources internal to the organization

C.

Including input from risk and business unit management

D.

Developing in collaboration with internal audit

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Question # 315

Which of the following provides The MOST useful information when determining a risk management program's maturity level?

A.

Risk assessment results

B.

A recently reviewed risk register

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

The organization's risk framework

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Question # 316

Which of the following is the BEST course of action when risk is found to be above the acceptable risk appetite?

A.

Review risk tolerance levels

B.

Maintain the current controls.

C.

Analyze the effectiveness of controls.

D.

Execute the risk response plan

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Question # 317

Which of the following should be the risk practitioner s FIRST course of action when an organization has decided to expand into new product areas?

A.

Identify any new business objectives with stakeholders.

B.

Present a business case for new controls to stakeholders.

C.

Revise the organization's risk and control policy.

D.

Review existing risk scenarios with stakeholders.

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Question # 318

Which of the following would provide executive management with the BEST information to make risk decisions as a result of a risk assessment?

A.

A companion of risk assessment results to the desired state

B.

A quantitative presentation of risk assessment results

C.

An assessment of organizational maturity levels and readiness

D.

A qualitative presentation of risk assessment results

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Question # 319

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a vulnerability management process?

A.

Percentage of vulnerabilities remediated within the agreed service level

B.

Number of vulnerabilities identified during the period

C.

Number of vulnerabilities re-opened during the period

D.

Percentage of vulnerabilities escalated to senior management

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Question # 320

Of the following, who should be responsible for determining the inherent risk rating of an application?

A.

Application owner

B.

Senior management

C.

Risk practitioner

D.

Business process owner

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Question # 321

Which of the following will BEST support management repotting on risk?

A.

Risk policy requirements

B.

A risk register

C.

Control self-assessment

D.

Key performance Indicators

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Question # 322

Which of the following is performed after a risk assessment is completed?

A.

Defining risk taxonomy

B.

Identifying vulnerabilities

C.

Conducting an impact analysis

D.

Defining risk response options

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Question # 323

A risk practitioner has collaborated with subject matter experts from the IT department to develop a large list of potential key risk indicators (KRIs) for all IT operations within theorganization of the following, who should review the completed list and select the appropriate KRIs for implementation?

A.

IT security managers

B.

IT control owners

C.

IT auditors

D.

IT risk owners

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Question # 324

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when communicating the risk associated with technology end-of-life to business owners?

A.

Cost and benefit

B.

Security and availability

C.

Maintainability and reliability

D.

Performance and productivity

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Question # 325

An organization's control environment is MOST effective when:

A.

controls perform as intended.

B.

controls operate efficiently.

C.

controls are implemented consistent

D.

control designs are reviewed periodically

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Question # 326

Which of the following would provide the MOST reliable evidence of the effectiveness of security controls implemented for a web application?

A.

Penetration testing

B.

IT general controls audit

C.

Vulnerability assessment

D.

Fault tree analysis

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Question # 327

A root because analysis indicates a major service disruption due to a lack of competency of newly hired IT system administrators Who should be accountable for resolving the situation?

A.

HR training director

B.

Business process owner

C.

HR recruitment manager

D.

Chief information officer (CIO)

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Question # 328

Which of the following is MOST important to consider before determining a response to a vulnerability?

A.

The likelihood and impact of threat events

B.

The cost to implement the risk response

C.

Lack of data to measure threat events

D.

Monetary value of the asset

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Question # 329

Which of the following should be used as the PRIMARY basis for evaluating the state of an organization's cloud computing environment against leading practices?

A.

The cloud environment's capability maturity model

B.

The cloud environment's risk register

C.

The cloud computing architecture

D.

The organization's strategic plans for cloud computing

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Question # 330

Which of the following is the MOST effective way for a large and diversified organization to minimize risk associated with unauthorized software on company devices?

A.

Scan end points for applications not included in the asset inventory.

B.

Prohibit the use of cloud-based virtual desktop software.

C.

Conduct frequent reviews of software licenses.

D.

Perform frequent internal audits of enterprise IT infrastructure.

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Question # 331

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure data is properly sanitized while in cloud storage?

A.

Deleting the data from the file system

B.

Cryptographically scrambling the data

C.

Formatting the cloud storage at the block level

D.

Degaussing the cloud storage media

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Question # 332

Business management is seeking assurance from the CIO that IT has a plan in place for early identification of potential issues that could impact the delivery of a new application Which of the following is the BEST way to increase the chances of a successful delivery'?

A.

Implement a release and deployment plan

B.

Conduct comprehensive regression testing.

C.

Develop enterprise-wide key risk indicators (KRls)

D.

Include business management on a weekly risk and issues report

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Question # 333

Which of the following would be the GREATEST concern for an IT risk practitioner when an employees.....

A.

The organization's structure has not been updated

B.

Unnecessary access permissions have not been removed.

C.

Company equipment has not been retained by IT

D.

Job knowledge was not transferred to employees m the former department

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Question # 334

Which key performance efficiency IKPI) BEST measures the effectiveness of an organization's disaster recovery program?

A.

Number of service level agreement (SLA) violations

B.

Percentage of recovery issues identified during the exercise

C.

Number of total systems recovered within tie recovery point objective (RPO)

D.

Percentage of critical systems recovered within tie recovery time objective (RTO)

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Question # 335

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of establishing an organization's risk tolerance and appetite?

A.

To align with board reporting requirements

B.

To assist management in decision making

C.

To create organization-wide risk awareness

D.

To minimize risk mitigation efforts

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Question # 336

Which of the following BEST enables a risk practitioner to understand management's approach to organizational risk?

A.

Organizational structure and job descriptions

B.

Risk appetite and risk tolerance

C.

Industry best practices for risk management

D.

Prior year's risk assessment results

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Question # 337

When evaluating a number of potential controls for treating risk, it is MOST important to consider:

A.

risk appetite and control efficiency.

B.

inherent risk and control effectiveness.

C.

residual risk and cost of control.

D.

risk tolerance and control complexity.

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Question # 338

Which of the following findings of a security awareness program assessment would cause the GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

A.

The program has not decreased threat counts.

B.

The program has not considered business impact.

C.

The program has been significantly revised

D.

The program uses non-customized training modules.

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Question # 339

Which of the following would BEST enable a risk-based decision when considering the use of an emerging technology for data processing?

A.

Gap analysis

B.

Threat assessment

C.

Resource skills matrix

D.

Data quality assurance plan

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Question # 340

A company has recently acquired a customer relationship management (CRM) application from a certified software vendor. Which of the following will BE ST help lo prevent technical vulnerabilities from being exploded?

A.

implement code reviews and Quality assurance on a regular basis

B.

Verity me software agreement indemnifies the company from losses

C.

Review the source coda and error reporting of the application

D.

Update the software with the latest patches and updates

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Question # 341

The following is the snapshot of a recently approved IT risk register maintained by an organization's information security department.

After implementing countermeasures listed in ‘’Risk Response Descriptions’’ for each of the Risk IDs, which of the following component of the register MUST change?

A.

Risk Impact Rating

B.

Risk Owner

C.

Risk Likelihood Rating

D.

Risk Exposure

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Question # 342

A multinational organization is considering implementing standard background checks to' all new employees A KEY concern regarding this approach

A.

fail to identity all relevant issues.

B.

be too costly

C.

violate laws in other countries

D.

be too line consuming

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Question # 343

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with the misclassification of data?

A.

inadequate resource allocation

B.

Data disruption

C.

Unauthorized access

D.

Inadequate retention schedules

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Question # 344

Which of the following would MOST likely require a risk practitioner to update the risk register?

A.

An alert being reported by the security operations center.

B.

Development of a project schedule for implementing a risk response

C.

Completion of a project for implementing a new control

D.

Engagement of a third party to conduct a vulnerability scan

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Question # 345

An organization has an approved bring your own device (BYOD) policy. Which of the following would BEST mitigate the security risk associated with the inappropriate use of enterprise applications on the devices?

A.

Periodically review application on BYOD devices

B.

Include BYOD in organizational awareness programs

C.

Implement BYOD mobile device management (MDM) controls.

D.

Enable a remote wee capability for BYOD devices

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Question # 346

Which of the following is the BEST method to mitigate the risk of an unauthorized employee viewing confidential data in a database''

A.

Implement role-based access control

B.

Implement a data masking process

C.

Include sanctions in nondisclosure agreements (NDAs)

D.

Install a data loss prevention (DLP) tool

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Question # 347

An organization is adopting block chain for a new financial system. Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern for a risk practitioner evaluating the system's production readiness?

A.

Limited organizational knowledge of the underlying technology

B.

Lack of commercial software support

C.

Varying costs related to implementation and maintenance

D.

Slow adoption of the technology across the financial industry

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Question # 348

Which of the following is the BEST indication that key risk indicators (KRls) should be revised?

A.

A decrease in the number of critical assets covered by risk thresholds

B.

An Increase In the number of risk threshold exceptions

C.

An increase in the number of change events pending management review

D.

A decrease In the number of key performance indicators (KPls)

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Question # 349

An organization has experienced several incidents of extended network outages that have exceeded tolerance. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST step to address this situation?

A.

Recommend additional controls to address the risk.

B.

Update the risk tolerance level to acceptable thresholds.

C.

Update the incident-related risk trend in the risk register.

D.

Recommend a root cause analysis of the incidents.

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Question # 350

When establishing an enterprise IT risk management program, it is MOST important to:

A.

review alignment with the organizations strategy.

B.

understand the organization's information security policy.

C.

validate the organization's data classification scheme.

D.

report identified IT risk scenarios to senior management.

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Question # 351

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure new IT policies address the enterprise's requirements?

A.

involve IT leadership in the policy development process

B.

Require business users to sign acknowledgment of the poises

C.

involve business owners in the pokey development process

D.

Provide policy owners with greater enforcement authority

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Question # 352

Which of the following practices would be MOST effective in protecting personality identifiable information (Ptl) from unauthorized access m a cloud environment?

A.

Apply data classification policy

B.

Utilize encryption with logical access controls

C.

Require logical separation of company data

D.

Obtain the right to audit

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Question # 353

When determining the accuracy of a key risk indicator (KRI), it is MOST important that the indicator:

A.

is correlated to risk and tracks variances in the risk.

B.

is assigned to IT processes and projects with a low level of risk.

C.

has a high correlation with the process outcome.

D.

triggers response based on risk thresholds.

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Question # 354

Which of the following is the MOST important objective of an enterprise risk management (ERM) program?

A.

To create a complete repository of risk to the organization

B.

To create a comprehensive view of critical risk to the organization

C.

To provide a bottom-up view of the most significant risk scenarios

D.

To optimize costs of managing risk scenarios in the organization

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Question # 355

Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent the loss of highly sensitive data when disposing of storage media?

A.

Physical destruction

B.

Degaussing

C.

Data anonymization

D.

Data deletion

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Question # 356

A multinational company needs to implement a new centralized security system. The risk practitioner has identified a conflict between the organization's data-handling policy and local privacy regulations. Which of the following would be the BEST recommendation?

A.

Request a policy exception from senior management.

B.

Comply with the organizational policy.

C.

Report the noncompliance to the local regulatory agency.

D.

Request an exception from the local regulatory agency.

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Question # 357

Which of the following provides the MOST mitigation value for an organization implementing new Internet of Things (loT) devices?

A.

Performing a vulnerability assessment on the loT devices

B.

Designing loT architecture with IT security controls from the start

C.

Implementing key risk indicators (KRIs) for loT devices

D.

To ensure risk trend data is collected and reported

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Question # 358

An organization has built up its cash reserves and has now become financially able to support additional risk while meeting its objectives. What is this change MOST likely to impact?

A.

Risk profile

B.

Risk capacity

C.

Risk indicators

D.

Risk tolerance

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Question # 359

Which of the following is MOST important for management to consider when deciding whether to invest in an IT initiative that exceeds management's risk appetite?

A.

Risk management budget

B.

Risk management industry trends

C.

Risk tolerance

D.

Risk capacity

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Question # 360

Which strategy employed by risk management would BEST help to prevent internal fraud?

A.

Require control owners to conduct an annual control certification.

B.

Conduct regular internal and external audits on the systems supporting financial reporting.

C.

Ensure segregation of duties are implemented within key systems or processes.

D.

Require the information security officer to review unresolved incidents.

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Question # 361

An organization has outsourced its lease payment process to a service provider who lacks evidence of compliance with a necessary regulatory standard. Which risk treatment was adopted by the organization?

A.

Acceptance

B.

Transfer

C.

Mitigation

D.

Avoidance

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Question # 362

Which of the following is the BEST control to minimize the risk associated with scope creep in software development?

A.

An established process for project change management

B.

Retention of test data and results for review purposes

C.

Business managements review of functional requirements

D.

Segregation between development, test, and production

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Question # 363

An organization control environment is MOST effective when:

A.

control designs are reviewed periodically

B.

controls perform as intended.

C.

controls are implemented consistently.

D.

controls operate efficiently

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Question # 364

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information for developing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA) results

B.

Risk scenario ownership

C.

Risk thresholds

D.

Possible causes of materialized risk

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Question # 365

Which of the following issues found during the review of a newly created disaster recovery plan (DRP) should be of MOST concern?

A.

Some critical business applications are not included in the plan

B.

Several recovery activities will be outsourced

C.

The plan is not based on an internationally recognized framework

D.

The chief information security officer (CISO) has not approved the plan

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Question # 366

Which of the following is MOST important for mitigating ethical risk when establishing accountability for control ownership?

A.

Ensuring processes are documented to enable effective control execution

B.

Ensuring regular risk messaging is Included in business communications from leadership

C.

Ensuring schedules and deadlines for control-related deliverables are strictly monitored

D.

Ensuring performance metrics balance business goals with risk appetite

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Question # 367

Which of the following is the BEST way to support communication of emerging risk?

A.

Update residual risk levels to reflect the expected risk impact.

B.

Adjust inherent risk levels upward.

C.

Include it on the next enterprise risk committee agenda.

D.

Include it in the risk register for ongoing monitoring.

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Question # 368

Which of the following is the BEST approach for selecting controls to minimize risk?

A.

Industry best practice review

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Control-effectiveness evaluation

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Question # 369

When is the BEST to identify risk associated with major project to determine a mitigation plan?

A.

Project execution phase

B.

Project initiation phase

C.

Project closing phase

D.

Project planning phase

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Question # 370

An organization has completed a risk assessment of one of its service providers. Who should be accountable for ensuring that risk responses are implemented?

A.

IT risk practitioner

B.

Third -partf3ecurity team

C.

The relationship owner

D.

Legal representation of the business

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Question # 371

An organization has agreed to a 99% availability for its online services and will not accept availability that falls below 98.5%. This is an example of:

A.

risk mitigation.

B.

risk evaluation.

C.

risk appetite.

D.

risk tolerance.

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Question # 372

The BEST metric to demonstrate that servers are configured securely is the total number of servers:

A.

exceeding availability thresholds

B.

experiencing hardware failures

C.

exceeding current patching standards.

D.

meeting the baseline for hardening.

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Question # 373

Which of the following key performance indicators (KPis) would BEST measure me risk of a service outage when using a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendors

A.

Frequency of business continuity plan (BCP) lasting

B.

Frequency and number of new software releases

C.

Frequency and duration of unplanned downtime

D.

Number of IT support staff available after business hours

Full Access
Question # 374

Which of the following is MOST important information to review when developing plans for using emerging technologies?

A.

Existing IT environment

B.

IT strategic plan

C.

Risk register

D.

Organizational strategic plan

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Question # 375

it was determined that replication of a critical database used by two business units failed. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern1?

A.

The underutilization of the replicated Iink

B.

The cost of recovering the data

C.

The lack of integrity of data

D.

The loss of data confidentiality

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Question # 376

The MAIN reason for prioritizing IT risk responses is to enable an organization to:

A.

determine the risk appetite.

B.

determine the budget.

C.

define key performance indicators (KPIs).

D.

optimize resource utilization.

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Question # 377

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to review an organization's IT asset inventory?

A.

To plan for the replacement of assets at the end of their life cycles

B.

To assess requirements for reducing duplicate assets

C.

To understand vulnerabilities associated with the use of the assets

D.

To calculate mean time between failures (MTBF) for the assets

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Question # 378

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with inappropriate classification of data?

A.

Inaccurate record management data

B.

Users having unauthorized access to data

C.

Inaccurate recovery time objectives (RTOs)

D.

Lack of accountability for data ownership

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Question # 379

An organizational policy requires critical security patches to be deployed in production within three weeks of patch availability. Which of the following is the BEST metric to verify adherence to the policy?

A.

Maximum time gap between patch availability and deployment

B.

Percentage of critical patches deployed within three weeks

C.

Minimum time gap between patch availability and deployment

D.

Number of critical patches deployed within three weeks

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Question # 380

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of a risk awareness program?

A.

To demonstrate senior management support

B.

To enhance organizational risk culture

C.

To increase awareness of risk mitigation controls

D.

To clearly define ownership of risk

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Question # 381

Which of the following presents the GREATEST privacy risk related to personal data processing for a global organization?

A.

Privacy risk awareness training has not been conducted across the organization.

B.

The organization has not incorporated privacy into its risk management framework.

C.

The organization allows staff with access to personal data to work remotely.

D.

Personal data processing occurs in an offshore location with a data sharing agreement.

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Question # 382

Reviewing which of the following would provide the MOST useful information when preparing to evaluate the effectiveness of existing controls?

A.

Previous audit reports

B.

Control objectives

C.

Risk responses in the risk register

D.

Changes in risk profiles

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Question # 383

Which of the following is the MOST important success factor when introducing risk management in an organization?

A.

Implementing a risk register

B.

Defining a risk mitigation strategy and plan

C.

Assigning risk ownership

D.

Establishing executive management support

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Question # 384

Zero Trust architecture is designed and deployed with adherence to which of the following basic tenets?

A.

Incoming traffic must be inspected before connection is established.

B.

Security frameworks and libraries should be leveraged.

C.

Digital identities should be implemented.

D.

All communication is secured regardless of network location.

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Question # 385

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST course of action upon learning that regulatory authorities have concerns with an emerging technology the organization is considering?

A.

Redesign key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Update risk responses.

C.

Conduct a SWOT analysis.

D.

Perform a threat assessment.

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Question # 386

Which of the following provides the MOST useful input to the development of realistic risk scenarios?

A.

Balanced scorecard

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk map

D.

Risk events

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Question # 387

Which of the following provides the MOST reliable evidence to support conclusions after completing an information systems controls assessment?

A.

Risk and control self-assessment (CSA) reports

B.

Information generated by the systems

C.

Control environment narratives

D.

Confirmation from industry peers

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Question # 388

An organization's capability to implement a risk management framework is PRIMARILY influenced by the:

A.

guidance of the risk practitioner.

B.

competence of the staff involved.

C.

approval of senior management.

D.

maturity of its risk culture.

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Question # 389

Which of the following actions should a risk practitioner do NEXT when an increased industry trend of external cyber attacks is identified?

A.

Conduct a threat and vulnerability analysis.

B.

Notify senior management of the new risk scenario.

C.

Update the risk impact rating in the risk register.

D.

Update the key risk indicator (KRI) in the risk register.

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Question # 390

To help ensure the success of a major IT project, it is MOST important to:

A.

obtain the appropriate stakeholders' commitment.

B.

align the project with the IT risk framework.

C.

obtain approval from business process owners.

D.

update the risk register on a regular basis.

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Question # 391

Which of the following would MOST likely cause management to unknowingly accept excessive risk?

A.

Satisfactory audit results

B.

Risk tolerance being set too low

C.

Inaccurate risk ratings

D.

Lack of preventive controls

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Question # 392

Who should be responsible for approving the cost of controls to be implemented for mitigating risk?

A.

Risk practitioner

B.

Risk owner

C.

Control owner

D.

Control implementer

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Question # 393

Because of a potential data breach, an organization has decided to temporarily shut down its online sales order system until sufficient controls can be implemented. Which risk treatment has been selected?

A.

Avoidance

B.

Acceptance

C.

Mitigation

D.

Transfer

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Question # 394

Which of the following is the MOST important course of action for a risk practitioner when reviewing the results of control performance monitoring?

A.

Evaluate changes to the organization's risk profile.

B.

Validate whether the controls effectively mitigate risk.

C.

Confirm controls achieve regulatory compliance.

D.

Analyze appropriateness of key performance indicators (KPIs).

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Question # 395

An organization's IT team has proposed the adoption of cloud computing as a cost-saving measure for the business. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to the risk practitioner?

A.

Due diligence for the recommended cloud vendor has not been performed.

B.

The business can introduce new Software as a Service (SaaS) solutions without IT approval.

C.

The maintenance of IT infrastructure has been outsourced to an Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) provider.

D.

Architecture responsibilities may not be clearly defined.

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Question # 396

An organization has established workflows in its service desk to support employee reports of security-related concerns. Which of the following is the MOST efficient approach to analyze these concerns?

A.

Map concerns to organizational assets.

B.

Sort concerns by likelihood.

C.

Align concerns to key vendors.

D.

Prioritize concerns based on frequency of reports.

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Question # 397

A risk practitioner has reviewed new international regulations and realizes the new regulations will affect the organization. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's NEXT course of

action?

A.

Conduct a peer response assessment.

B.

Update risk scenarios in the risk register.

C.

Reevaluate the risk management program.

D.

Ensure applications are compliant.

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Question # 398

Which of the following is PRIMARILY responsible for providing assurance to the board of directors and senior management during the evaluation of a risk management program implementation?

A.

Risk management

B.

Business units

C.

External audit

D.

Internal audit

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Question # 399

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY driver for the prioritization of risk responses?

A.

Residual risk

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Mitigation cost

D.

Inherent risk

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Question # 400

Which of the following BEST helps to mitigate risk associated with excessive access by authorized users?

A.

Monitoring user activity using security logs

B.

Revoking access for users changing roles

C.

Granting access based on least privilege

D.

Conducting periodic reviews of authorizations granted

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Question # 401

A penetration testing team discovered an ineffectively designed access control. Who is responsible for ensuring the control design gap is remediated?

A.

Control owner

B.

Risk owner

C.

IT security manager

D.

Control operator

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Question # 402

Concerned about system load capabilities during the month-end close process, management requires monitoring of the average time to complete tasks and monthly reporting of the findings. What type of measure has been established?

A.

Service level agreement (SLA)

B.

Critical success factor (CSF)

C.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

D.

Key performance indicator (KPI)

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Question # 403

A technology company is developing a strategic artificial intelligence (Al)-driven application that has high potential business value. At what point should the enterprise risk profile be updated?

A.

After user acceptance testing (UAT)

B.

Upon approval of the business case

C.

When user stories are developed

D.

During post-implementation review

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Question # 404

Which of the following is the MOST useful information for prioritizing risk mitigation?

A.

Cost of risk mitigation

B.

Asset criticality

C.

Acceptable risk level

D.

Business impact assessment

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Question # 405

Which of the following scenarios is MOST important to communicate to senior management?

A.

Accepted risk scenarios with detailed plans for monitoring

B.

Risk scenarios that have been shared with vendors and third parties

C.

Accepted risk scenarios with impact exceeding the risk tolerance

D.

Risk scenarios that have been identified, assessed, and responded to by the risk owners

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Question # 406

Which of the following BEST enables a risk practitioner to identify the consequences of losing critical resources due to a disaster?

A.

Risk management action plans

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

What-if technique

D.

Tabletop exercise results

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Question # 407

An online payment processor would be severely impacted if the fraud detection system has an outage. Which of the following is the BEST way to address this risk?

A.

Implement continuous control monitoring.

B.

Communicate the risk to management.

C.

Introduce recovery control procedures.

D.

Document a risk response plan.

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Question # 408

Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when determining controls necessary for a highly critical information system?

A.

The number of threats to the system

B.

The organization's available budget

C.

The number of vulnerabilities to the system

D.

The level of acceptable risk to the organization

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Question # 409

Which of the following is MOST important to identify when developing top-down risk scenarios?

A.

Key procedure control gaps

B.

Business objectives

C.

Senior management's risk appetite

D.

Hypothetical scenarios

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Question # 410

What is the MOST important consideration when selecting key performance indicators (KPIs) for control monitoring?

A.

Source information is acquired at stable cost.

B.

Source information is tailored by removing outliers.

C.

Source information is readily quantifiable.

D.

Source information is consistently available.

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Question # 411

When of the following standard operating procedure (SOP) statements BEST illustrates appropriate risk register maintenance?

A.

Remove risk that has been mitigated by third-party transfer

B.

Remove risk that management has decided to accept

C.

Remove risk only following a significant change in the risk environment

D.

Remove risk when mitigation results in residual risk within tolerance levels

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Question # 412

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for logging in a production database environment?

A.

To provide evidence of activities

B.

To prevent illicit actions of database administrators (DBAs)

C.

To ensure that changes are authorized

D.

To ensure that changes made are correctly applied

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Question # 413

The PRIMARY reason for tracking the status of risk mitigation plans is to ensure:

A.

the proposed controls are implemented as scheduled.

B.

security controls are tested prior to implementation.

C.

compliance with corporate policies.

D.

the risk response strategy has been decided.

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Question # 414

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to determine risk exposure following control implementations?

A.

Strategic plan and risk management integration

B.

Risk escalation and process for communication

C.

Risk limits, thresholds, and indicators

D.

Policies, standards, and procedures

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Question # 415

Which of the following roles is BEST suited to help a risk practitioner understand the impact of IT-related events on business objectives?

A.

IT management

B.

Internal audit

C.

Process owners

D.

Senior management

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Question # 416

A vulnerability assessment of a vendor-supplied solution has revealed that the software is susceptible to cross-site scripting and SQL injection attacks. Which of the following will BEST mitigate this issue?

A.

Monitor the databases for abnormal activity

B.

Approve exception to allow the software to continue operating

C.

Require the software vendor to remediate the vulnerabilities

D.

Accept the risk and let the vendor run the software as is

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Question # 417

Which element of an organization's risk register is MOST important to update following the commissioning of a new financial reporting system?

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

The owner of the financial reporting process

C.

The risk rating of affected financial processes

D.

The list of relevant financial controls

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Question # 418

Which of the following will BEST help in communicating strategic risk priorities?

A.

Heat map

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Balanced Scorecard

D.

Risk register

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Question # 419

Which of the following BEST assists in justifying an investment in automated controls?

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Alignment of investment with risk appetite

C.

Elimination of compensating controls

D.

Reduction in personnel costs

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Question # 420

An IT risk practitioner has determined that mitigation activities differ from an approved risk action plan. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Report the observation to the chief risk officer (CRO).

B.

Validate the adequacy of the implemented risk mitigation measures.

C.

Update the risk register with the implemented risk mitigation actions.

D.

Revert the implemented mitigation measures until approval is obtained

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Question # 421

An IT department has organized training sessions to improve user awareness of organizational information security policies. Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to reflect effectiveness of the training?

A.

Number of training sessions completed

B.

Percentage of staff members who complete the training with a passing score

C.

Percentage of attendees versus total staff

D.

Percentage of staff members who attend the training with positive feedback

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Question # 422

Which of the following would be MOST helpful when communicating roles associated with the IT risk management process?

A.

Skills matrix

B.

Job descriptions

C.

RACI chart

D.

Organizational chart

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Question # 423

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to adopt key control indicators (KCIs) in the risk monitoring and reporting process?

A.

To provide data for establishing the risk profile

B.

To provide assurance of adherence to risk management policies

C.

To provide measurements on the potential for risk to occur

D.

To provide assessments of mitigation effectiveness

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Question # 424

Which of the following would require updates to an organization's IT risk register?

A.

Discovery of an ineffectively designed key IT control

B.

Management review of key risk indicators (KRls)

C.

Changes to the team responsible for maintaining the register

D.

Completion of the latest internal audit

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Question # 425

Senior management has asked a risk practitioner to develop technical risk scenarios related to a recently developed enterprise resource planning (ERP) system. These scenarios will be owned by the system manager. Which of the following would be the BEST method to use when developing the scenarios?

A.

Cause-and-effect diagram

B.

Delphi technique

C.

Bottom-up approach

D.

Top-down approach

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Question # 426

An information system for a key business operation is being moved from an in-house application to a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor. Which of the following will have the GREATEST impact on the ability to monitor risk?

A.

Reduced ability to evaluate key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Reduced access to internal audit reports

C.

Dependency on the vendor's key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Dependency on service level agreements (SLAs)

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Question # 427

Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration for senior management when developing a risk response strategy?

A.

Cost of controls

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Probability definition

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Question # 428

A department allows multiple users to perform maintenance on a system using a single set of credentials. A risk practitioner determined this practice to be high-risk. Which of the following is the MOST effective way to mitigate this risk?

A.

Single sign-on

B.

Audit trail review

C.

Multi-factor authentication

D.

Data encryption at rest

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Question # 429

Determining if organizational risk is tolerable requires:

A.

mapping residual risk with cost of controls

B.

comparing against regulatory requirements

C.

comparing industry risk appetite with the organizations.

D.

understanding the organization's risk appetite.

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Question # 430

Which of the following is the BEST way to confirm whether appropriate automated controls are in place within a recently implemented system?

A.

Perform a post-implementation review.

B.

Conduct user acceptance testing.

C.

Review the key performance indicators (KPIs).

D.

Interview process owners.

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Question # 431

Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate the risk to IT infrastructure availability?

A.

Establishing a disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Establishing recovery time objectives (RTOs)

C.

Maintaining a current list of staff contact delays

D.

Maintaining a risk register

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Question # 432

An organization outsources the processing of us payroll data A risk practitioner identifies a control weakness at the third party trial exposes the payroll data. Who should own this risk?

A.

The third party's IT operations manager

B.

The organization's process owner

C.

The third party's chief risk officer (CRO)

D.

The organization's risk practitioner

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Question # 433

Which of the following BEST enables the identification of trends in risk levels?

A.

Correlation between risk levels and key risk indicators (KRIs) is positive.

B.

Measurements for key risk indicators (KRIs) are repeatable

C.

Quantitative measurements are used for key risk indicators (KRIs).

D.

Qualitative definitions for key risk indicators (KRIs) are used.

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Question # 434

An organization moved its payroll system to a Software as a Service (SaaS) application. A new data privacy regulation stipulates that data can only be processed within the countrywhere it is collected. Which of the following should be done FIRST when addressing this situation?

A.

Analyze data protection methods.

B.

Understand data flows.

C.

Include a right-to-audit clause.

D.

Implement strong access controls.

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Question # 435

Which of the following should be determined FIRST when a new security vulnerability is made public?

A.

Whether the affected technology is used within the organization

B.

Whether the affected technology is Internet-facing

C.

What mitigating controls are currently in place

D.

How pervasive the vulnerability is within the organization

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Question # 436

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action when a tolerance threshold is exceeded?

A.

Communicate potential impact to decision makers.

B.

Research the root cause of similar incidents.

C.

Verify the response plan is adequate.

D.

Increase human resources to respond in the interim.

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Question # 437

Which of the following BEST indicates the condition of a risk management program?

A.

Number of risk register entries

B.

Number of controls

C.

Level of financial support

D.

Amount of residual risk

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Question # 438

An organization's risk register contains a large volume of risk scenarios that senior management considers overwhelming. Which of the following would BEST help to improve the risk register?

A.

Analyzing the residual risk components

B.

Performing risk prioritization

C.

Validating the risk appetite level

D.

Conducting a risk assessment

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Question # 439

Which of the following is the BEST method for assessing control effectiveness against technical vulnerabilities that could be exploited to compromise an information system?

A.

Vulnerability scanning

B.

Systems log correlation analysis

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Monitoring of intrusion detection system (IDS) alerts

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Question # 440

Which of the following would provide the MOST useful information to a risk owner when reviewing the progress of risk mitigation?

A.

Key audit findings

B.

Treatment plan status

C.

Performance indicators

D.

Risk scenario results

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Question # 441

Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration when a business unit wants to use personal information for a purpose other than for which it was originally collected?

A.

Informed consent

B.

Cross border controls

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Data breach protection

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Question # 442

Which of the following should be done FIRST when information is no longer required to support business objectives?

A.

Archive the information to a backup database.

B.

Protect the information according to the classification policy.

C.

Assess the information against the retention policy.

D.

Securely and permanently erase the information

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Question # 443

The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for monitoring adherence to an organization's user accounts provisioning practices is the percentage of:

A.

accounts without documented approval

B.

user accounts with default passwords

C.

active accounts belonging to former personnel

D.

accounts with dormant activity.

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Question # 444

What are the MOST essential attributes of an effective Key control indicator (KCI)?

A.

Flexibility and adaptability

B.

Measurability and consistency

C.

Robustness and resilience

D.

Optimal cost and benefit

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Question # 445

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit to an organization when updates to the risk register are made promptly after the completion of a risk assessment?

A.

Improved senior management communication

B.

Optimized risk treatment decisions

C.

Enhanced awareness of risk management

D.

Improved collaboration among risk professionals

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Question # 446

Which of the following criteria associated with key risk indicators (KRIs) BEST enables effective risk monitoring?

A.

Approval by senior management

B.

Low cost of development and maintenance

C.

Sensitivity to changes in risk levels

D.

Use of industry risk data sources

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Question # 447

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to verify when evaluating the effectiveness of an organization's existing controls?

A.

Senior management has approved the control design.

B.

Inherent risk has been reduced from original levels.

C.

Residual risk remains within acceptable levels.

D.

Costs for control maintenance are reasonable.

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Question # 448

The PRIMARY objective for requiring an independent review of an organization's IT risk management process should be to:

A.

assess gaps in IT risk management operations and strategic focus.

B.

confirm that IT risk assessment results are expressed as business impact.

C.

verify implemented controls to reduce the likelihood of threat materialization.

D.

ensure IT risk management is focused on mitigating potential risk.

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Question # 449

The risk associated with an asset after controls are applied can be expressed as:

A.

a function of the cost and effectiveness of controls.

B.

the likelihood of a given threat.

C.

a function of the likelihood and impact.

D.

the magnitude of an impact.

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Question # 450

Which of the following BEST mitigates the risk of sensitive personal data leakage from a software development environment?

A.

Tokenized personal data only in test environments

B.

Data loss prevention tools (DLP) installed in passive mode

C.

Anonymized personal data in non-production environments

D.

Multi-factor authentication for access to non-production environments

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Question # 451

Which of the following roles would be MOST helpful in providing a high-level view of risk related to customer data loss?

A.

Customer database manager

B.

Customer data custodian

C.

Data privacy officer

D.

Audit committee

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Question # 452

After a high-profile systems breach at an organization s key vendor, the vendor has implemented additional mitigating controls. The vendor has voluntarily shared the following set of assessments:

Which of the assessments provides the MOST reliable input to evaluate residual risk in the vendor's control environment?

A.

External audit

B.

Internal audit

C.

Vendor performance scorecard

D.

Regulatory examination

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Question # 453

A risk practitioner has just learned about new malware that has severely impacted industry peers worldwide data loss?

A.

Customer database manager

B.

Customer data custodian

C.

Data privacy officer

D.

Audit committee

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Question # 454

Which of the following is MOST important when developing risk scenarios?

A.

Reviewing business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Collaborating with IT audit

C.

Conducting vulnerability assessments

D.

Obtaining input from key stakeholders

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Question # 455

A risk practitioner identifies a database application that has been developed and implemented by the business independently of IT. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A.

Escalate the concern to senior management.

B.

Document the reasons for the exception.

C.

Include the application in IT risk assessments.

D.

Propose that the application be transferred to IT.

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Question # 456

An organization's IT infrastructure is running end-of-life software that is not allowed without exception approval. Which of the following would provide the MOST helpful information to justify investing in updated software?

A.

The balanced scorecard

B.

A cost-benefit analysis

C.

The risk management frameworkD, A roadmap of IT strategic planning

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Question # 457

The BEST metric to monitor the risk associated with changes deployed to production is the percentage of:

A.

changes due to emergencies.

B.

changes that cause incidents.

C.

changes not requiring user acceptance testing.

D.

personnel that have rights to make changes in production.

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Question # 458

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of an IT risk awareness program?

A.

Ensure compliance with the organization's internal policies

B.

Cultivate long-term behavioral change.

C.

Communicate IT risk policy to the participants.

D.

Demonstrate regulatory compliance.

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Question # 459

Which of the following is the BEST way for an organization to enable risk treatment decisions?

A.

Allocate sufficient funds for risk remediation.

B.

Promote risk and security awareness.

C.

Establish clear accountability for risk.

D.

Develop comprehensive policies and standards.

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Question # 460

Which of the following BEST facilities the alignment of IT risk management with enterprise risk management (ERM)?

A.

Adopting qualitative enterprise risk assessment methods

B.

Linking IT risk scenarios to technology objectives

C.

linking IT risk scenarios to enterprise strategy

D.

Adopting quantitative enterprise risk assessment methods

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Question # 461

Which of the following BEST facilitates the mitigation of identified gaps between current and desired risk environment states?

A.

Develop a risk treatment plan.

B.

Validate organizational risk appetite.

C.

Review results of prior risk assessments.

D.

Include the current and desired states in the risk register.

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Question # 462

The acceptance of control costs that exceed risk exposure MOST likely demonstrates:

A.

corporate culture alignment

B.

low risk tolerance

C.

high risk tolerance

D.

corporate culture misalignment.

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Question # 463

Which of the following data would be used when performing a business impact analysis (BIA)?

A.

Cost-benefit analysis of running the current business

B.

Cost of regulatory compliance

C.

Projected impact of current business on future business

D.

Expected costs for recovering the business

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Question # 464

A risk practitioner has discovered a deficiency in a critical system that cannot be patched. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

A.

Report the issue to internal audit.

B.

Submit a request to change management.

C.

Conduct a risk assessment.

D.

Review the business impact assessment.

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Question # 465

For a large software development project, risk assessments are MOST effective when performed:

A.

before system development begins.

B.

at system development.

C.

at each stage of the system development life cycle (SDLC).

D.

during the development of the business case.

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Question # 466

Which of the following is the BEST approach when a risk practitioner has been asked by a business unit manager for special consideration during a risk assessment of a system?

A.

Conduct an abbreviated version of the assessment.

B.

Report the business unit manager for a possible ethics violation.

C.

Perform the assessment as it would normally be done.

D.

Recommend an internal auditor perform the review.

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Question # 467

A management team is on an aggressive mission to launch a new product to penetrate new markets and overlooks IT risk factors, threats, and vulnerabilities. This scenario BEST demonstrates an organization's risk:

A.

management.

B.

tolerance.

C.

culture.

D.

analysis.

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Question # 468

Which of the following is the MOST important objective of establishing an enterprise risk management (ERM) function within an organization?

A.

To have a unified approach to risk management across the organization

B.

To have a standard risk management process for complying with regulations

C.

To optimize risk management resources across the organization

D.

To ensure risk profiles are presented in a consistent format within the organization

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Question # 469

Participants in a risk workshop have become focused on the financial cost to mitigate risk rather than choosing the most appropriate response. Which of the following is the BEST way to address this type of issue in the long term?

A.

Perform a return on investment analysis.

B.

Review the risk register and risk scenarios.

C.

Calculate annualized loss expectancy of risk scenarios.

D.

Raise the maturity of organizational risk management.

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Question # 470

Employees are repeatedly seen holding the door open for others, so that trailing employees do not have to stop and swipe their own ID badges. This behavior BEST represents:

A.

a threat.

B.

a vulnerability.

C.

an impact

D.

a control.

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Question # 471

Which of the following trends would cause the GREATEST concern regarding the effectiveness of an organization's user access control processes? An increase in the:

A.

ratio of disabled to active user accounts.

B.

percentage of users with multiple user accounts.

C.

average number of access entitlements per user account.

D.

average time between user transfers and access updates.

Full Access
Question # 472

Which of the following is the MOST important component in a risk treatment plan?

A.

Technical details

B.

Target completion date

C.

Treatment plan ownership

D.

Treatment plan justification

Full Access