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CISM Questions and Answers

Question # 6

A new regulatory requirement affecting an organization's information security program is released. Which of the following should be the information security manager's FIRST course of action?

A.

Perform a gap analysis.

B.

Conduct benchmarking.

C.

Notify the legal department.

D.

Determine the disruption to the business.

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Question # 7

Which of the following BEST facilitates the development of a comprehensive information security policy?

A.

Alignment with an established information security framework

B.

An established internal audit program

C.

Security key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Areview of recent information security incidents

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Question # 8

An organization has purchased an Internet sales company to extend the sales department. The information security manager's FIRST step to ensure the security policy framework encompasses the new business model is to:

A.

perform a gap analysis.

B.

implement both companies' policies separately

C.

merge both companies' policies

D.

perform a vulnerability assessment

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Question # 9

A software vendor has announced a zero-day vulnerability that exposes an organization's critical business systems. The vendor has released an emergency patch. Which of the following should be the information security managers PRIMARY concern?

A.

Ability to test the patch prior to deployment

B.

Documentation of patching procedures

C.

Adequacy of the incident response plan

D.

Availability of resources to implement controls

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Question # 10

An information security manager is working to incorporate media communication procedures into the security incident communication plan. It would be MOST important to include:

A.

a directory of approved local media contacts

B.

pre-prepared media statements

C.

procedures to contact law enforcement

D.

a single point of contact within the organization

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Question # 11

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to enhance its incident response plan processes and procedures?

A.

Security risk assessments

B.

Lessons learned analysis

C.

Information security audits

D.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

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Question # 12

The PRIMARY advantage of involving end users in continuity planning is that they:

A.

have a better understanding of specific business needs.

B.

are more objective than information security management.

C.

can see the overall impact to the business.

D.

can balance the technical and business risks.

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Question # 13

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit achieved when an information security governance framework is aligned with corporate governance?

A.

Protection of business value and assets

B.

Identification of core business strategiesC, Easier entrance into new businesses and technologies

C.

Improved regulatory compliance posture

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Question # 14

Which of the following is the BEST justification for making a revision to a password policy?

A.

Vendor recommendation

B.

Audit recommendation

C.

A risk assessment

D.

Industry best practice

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Question # 15

Company A, a cloud service provider, is in the process of acquiring Company B to gain new benefits by incorporating their technologies within its cloud services.

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of Company A's information security manager?

A.

The organizational structure of Company B

B.

The cost to align to Company A's security policies

C.

Company A's security architecture

D.

Company B's security policies

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Question # 16

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST when a mandatory security standard hinders the achievement of an identified business objective?

A.

Revisit the business objective.

B.

Escalate to senior management.

C.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

D.

Recommend risk acceptance.

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Question # 17

Which of the following is MOST important to include in security incident escalation procedures?

A.

Key objectives of the security program

B.

Recovery procedures

C.

Notification criteria

D.

Containment procedures

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Question # 18

Which of the following would be an information security managers PRIMARY challenge when deploying a bring your own device (BYOD) mobile program in an enterprise?

A.

Mobile application control

B.

Inconsistent device security

C.

Configuration management

D.

End user acceptance

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Question # 19

Which of the following should include contact information for representatives of equipment and software vendors?

A.

Information security program charter

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Service level agreements (SLAs)

D.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

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Question # 20

Within the confidentiality, integrity, and availability (CIA) triad, which of the following activities BEST supports the concept of

confidentiality?

A.

Ensuring hashing of administrator credentials

B.

Enforcing service level agreements (SLAs)

C.

Ensuring encryption for data in transit

D.

Utilizing a formal change management process

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Question # 21

An organization has determined that fixing a security vulnerability in a critical application is too costly to be feasible, but the impact is material to the business. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate risk treatment?

A.

Purchase cybersecurity insurance.

B.

Accept the risk associated with continued use of the application.

C.

Implement compensating controls for the application.

D.

Discontinue using the application.

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Question # 22

Which of the following would be the MOST effective way to present quarterly reports to the board on the status of the information security program?

A.

A capability and maturity assessment

B.

Detailed analysis of security program KPIs

C.

An information security dashboard

D.

An information security risk register

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Question # 23

A recovery point objective (RPO) is required in which of the following?

A.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Information security plan

C.

Incident response plan

D.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

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Question # 24

An organization wants to integrate information security into its HR management processes. Which of the following should be the FIRST step?

A.

Benchmark the processes with best practice to identify gaps.

B.

Calculate the return on investment (ROI).

C.

Provide security awareness training to HR.

D.

Assess the business objectives of the processes.

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Question # 25

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of an acceptable use policy?

A.

To provide steps for carrying out security-related procedures

B.

To facilitate enforcement of security process workflows

C.

To protect the organization from misuse of information assets

D.

To provide minimum security baselines for information assets

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Question # 26

Which of the following will BEST enable an organization to meet incident response requirements when outsourcing its incident response function?

A.

Including response times in service level agreements (SLAs)

B.

Including a right-to-audit clause in service level agreements (SLAs)

C.

Contracting with a well-known incident response provider

D.

Requiring comprehensive response applications and tools

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Question # 27

Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to a large multinational organization using an automated identity and access management (1AM) system?

A.

Staff turnover rates that significantly exceed industry averages

B.

Large number of applications in the organization

C.

Inaccurate workforce data from human resources (HR)

D.

Frequent changes to user roles during employment

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Question # 28

While classifying information assets an information security manager notices that several production databases do not have owners assigned to them What is the BEST way to address this situation?

A.

Assign responsibility to the database administrator (DBA).

B.

Review the databases for sensitive content.

C.

Prepare a report of the databases for senior management.

D.

Assign the highest classification level to those databases.

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Question # 29

An organization has identified a weakness in the ability of its employees to identify and report cybersecurity incidents. Although training materials have been provided, employees show a lack of interest. Which of the following is the information security manager’s BEST course of action?

A.

Block network access until security awareness training is complete.

B.

Conduct an enterprise cybersecurity risk assessment.

C.

Obtain key stakeholder and leadership support.

D.

Send an email mandating training for the employees.

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Question # 30

Which of the following MUST be defined in order for an information security manager to evaluate the appropriateness of controls currently in place?

A.

Security policy

B.

Risk management framework

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Security standards

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Question # 31

When developing a categorization method for security incidents, the categories MUST:

A.

align with industry standards.

B.

be created by the incident handler.

C.

have agreed-upon definitions.

D.

align with reporting requirements.

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Question # 32

An organization needs to comply with new security incident response requirements. Which of the following should the information security manager do FIRST?

A.

Create a business case for a new incident response plan.

B.

Revise the existing incident response plan.

C.

Conduct a gap analysis.

D.

Assess the impact to the budget,

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Question # 33

After a server has been attacked, which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A.

Initiate incident response.

B.

Review vulnerability assessment.

C.

Conduct a security audit.

D.

Isolate the system.

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Question # 34

Meeting which of the following security objectives BEST ensures that information is protected against unauthorized disclosure?

A.

Integrity

B.

Authenticity

C.

Confidentiality

D.

Nonrepudiation

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Question # 35

A Seat a-hosting organization's data center houses servers, appli

BEST approach for developing a physical access control policy for the organization?

A.

Review customers’ security policies.

B.

Conduct a risk assessment to determine security risks and mitigating controls.

C.

Develop access control requirements for each system and application.

D.

Design single sign-on (SSO) or federated access.

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Question # 36

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for an information security manager to periodically review existing controls?

A.

To prioritize security initiatives

B.

To avoid redundant controls

C.

To align with emerging risk

D.

To address end-user control complaints

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Question # 37

Which of the following BEST facilitates the reporting of useful information about the effectiveness of the information security program?

A.

Risk heat map.

B.

Security benchmark report.

C.

Security metrics dashboard.

D.

Key risk indicators (KRIs).

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Question # 38

An organization is MOST likely to accept the risk of noncompliance with a new regulatory requirement when:

A.

employees are resistant to the controls required by the new regulation.

B.

the regulatory requirement conflicts with business requirements.

C.

the risk of noncompliance exceeds the organization's risk appetite.

D.

the cost of complying with the regulation exceeds the potential penalties.

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Question # 39

Which of the following would BEST mitigate accidental data loss events?

A.

Conduct periodic user awareness training.

B.

Obtain senior management support for the information security strategy.

C.

Conduct a data loss prevention (DLP) audit.

D.

Enforce a data hard drive encryption policy.

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Question # 40

Following an unsuccessful denial of service (DoS) attack, identified weaknesses should be:

A.

Tracked and reported on until their final resolution

B.

Noted and re-examined later if similar weaknesses are found

C.

Documented in security awareness programs

D.

Quickly resolved and eliminated regardless of cost

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Question # 41

An anomaly-based intrusion detection system (IDS) operates by gathering data on:

A.

normal network behavior and using it as a baseline lor measuring abnormal activity

B.

abnormal network behavior and issuing instructions to the firewall to drop rogue connections

C.

abnormal network behavior and using it as a baseline for measuring normal activity

D.

attack pattern signatures from historical data

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Question # 42

Which of the following is an information security manager's MOST important course of action when responding to a major security incident that could disrupt the business?

A.

Follow the escalation process.

B.

Identify the indicators of compromise.

C.

Notify law enforcement.

D.

Contact forensic investigators.

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Question # 43

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when determining which type of failover site to employ?

A.

Reciprocal agreements

B.

Disaster recovery test results

C.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs)

D.

Data retention requirements

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Question # 44

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of training service desk staff to recognize incidents?

A.

Incident response plan can be activated in a timely manner.

B.

Incident metrics can be communicated.

C.

Risk response options can be identified quickly.

D.

Incident classification times can be improved.

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Question # 45

An organization recently outsourced the development of a mission-critical business application. Which of the following would be the BEST way to test for the existence of backdoors?

A.

Scan the entire application using a vulnerability scanning tool.

B.

Run the application from a high-privileged account on a test system.

C.

Perform security code reviews on the entire application.

D.

Monitor Internet traffic for sensitive information leakage.

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Question # 46

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when briefing executives about the current state of the information security program?

A.

Including a situational forecast

B.

Using appropriate language for the target audience

C.

Including trend charts for metrics

D.

Using a rating system to demonstrate program effectiveness

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Question # 47

Which of the following is the BEST reason for an organization to use Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS)?

A.

It transfers the risk associated with recovery to a third party.

B.

It lowers the annual cost to the business.

C.

It eliminates the need to maintain offsite facilities.

D.

It eliminates the need for the business to perform testing.

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Question # 48

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of a successful intrusion into an organization's systems?

A.

Decrease in internal network traffic

B.

Increase in the number of failed login attempts

C.

Increase in the number of irregular application requests

D.

Decrease in available storage space

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Question # 49

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that a recently established infofmation security program is effective?

A.

The number of reported incidents has increased

B.

Regular IT balanced scorecards are communicated.

C.

Senior management has reported fewer junk emails.

D.

The number of tickets associated with IT incidents have stayed consistent

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Question # 50

Which type of control is an incident response team?

A.

Preventive

B.

Detective

C.

Corrective

D.

Directive

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Question # 51

Which of the following is BEST to include in a business case when the return on investment (ROI) for an information security initiative is difficult to calculate?

A.

Projected Increase in maturity level

B.

Estimated reduction in risk

C.

Projected costs over time

D.

Estimated increase in efficiency

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Question # 52

An employee clicked on a link in a phishing email, triggering a ransomware attack Which of the following should be the information security?

A.

Wipe the affected system.

B.

Notify internal legal counsel.

C.

Notify senior management.

D.

Isolate the impacted endpoints.

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Question # 53

Recovery time objectives (RTOs) are BEST determined by:

A.

business managers

B.

business continuity officers

C.

executive management

D.

database administrators (DBAs).

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Question # 54

Which of the following would be MOST useful when determining the business continuity strategy for a large organization's data center?

A.

Stakeholder feedback analysis

B.

Business continuity risk analysis

C.

Incident root cause analysis

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Question # 55

An information security manager is assessing security risk associated with a cloud service provider. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate reference to consult when performing this assessment?

A.

Previous provider service level agreements (SLAs)

B.

Security control frameworks

C.

Threat intelligence reports

D.

Penetration test results from the provider

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Question # 56

Which of the following would BEST help to ensure appropriate security controls are built into software?

A.

Integrating security throughout the development process

B.

Performing security testing prior to deployment

C.

Providing standards for implementation during development activities

D.

Providing security training to the software development team

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Question # 57

Which of the following is necessary to ensure consistent protection for an organization's information assets?

A.

Classification model

B.

Control assessment

C.

Data ownership

D.

Regulatory requirements

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Question # 58

An incident response policy should include:

A.

A description of testing methodology.

B.

Notification requirements.

C.

An infrastructure diagram.

D.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs).

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Question # 59

A user reports a stolen personal mobile device that stores sensitive corporate data. Which of the following will BEST minimize the risk of data exposure?

A.

Prevent the user from using personal mobile devices.

B.

Report the incident to the police.

C.

Wipe the device remotely.

D.

Remove user's access to corporate data.

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Question # 60

An incident management team is alerted to a suspected security event. Before classifying the suspected event as a security incident, it is MOST important for the security manager to:

A.

conduct an incident forensic analysis.

B.

fallow the incident response plan

C.

notify the business process owner.

D.

fallow the business continuity plan (BCP).

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Question # 61

Which of the following will BEST facilitate integrating the information security program into corporate governance?

A.

An up-to-date security strategy

B.

Documentation of the threat landscape

C.

Documentation of residual risk

D.

A minimum security baseline

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Question # 62

An organization's disaster recovery plan (DRP) is documented and kept at a disaster recovery site. Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure the plan can be carried out in an emergency?

A.

Store disaster recovery documentation in a public cloud.

B.

Maintain an outsourced contact center in another country.

C.

Require disaster recovery documentation be stored with all key decision makers.

D.

Provide annual disaster recovery training to appropriate staff.

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Question # 63

An organization has discovered that a server processing real-time visual data could be vulnerable to a lateral movement stage in a ransomware attack. Which of the following controls BEST mitigates this vulnerability?

A.

Network segmentation

B.

Data loss prevention (DLP)

C.

Encryption of data in transit

D.

Intrusion detection system (IDS)

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Question # 64

Which of the following is the BEST way to compete for funding for an information security program in an organization with limited resources?

A.

Demonstrate the effectiveness of business continuity plans (BCPs).

B.

Report key performance indicator (KPI) trends.

C.

Demonstrate that the program enables business activities.

D.

Provide evidence of increased security events at peer organizations.

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Question # 65

An information security manager has identified that security risks are not being treated in a timely manner. Which of the following

A.

Provide regular updates about the current state of the risks.

B.

Re-perform risk analysis at regular intervals.

C.

Assign a risk owner to each risk

D.

Create mitigating controls to manage the risks.

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Question # 66

Reverse lookups can be used to prevent successful:

A.

denial of service (DoS) attacks

B.

session hacking

C.

phishing attacks

D.

Internet protocol (IP) spoofing

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Question # 67

An information security team is investigating an alleged breach of an organization's network. Which of the following would be the BEST single source of evidence to review?

A.

File integrity monitoring software

B.

Security information and event management (SIEM) tool

C.

Antivirus software

D.

Intrusion detection system (IDS)

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Question # 68

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to operate smoothly with reduced capacities when service has been disrupted?

A.

Crisis management plan

B.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

C.

Incident response plan

D.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

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Question # 69

When determining an acceptable risk level which of the following is the MOST important consideration?

A.

Threat profiles

B.

System criticalities

C.

Vulnerability scores

D.

Risk matrices

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Question # 70

Which of the following would BEST ensure that security is integrated during application development?

A.

Employing global security standards during development processes

B.

Providing training on secure development practices to programmers

C.

Performing application security testing during acceptance testing

D.

Introducing security requirements during the initiation phase

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Question # 71

An organization has remediated a security flaw in a system. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

A.

Assess the residual risk.

B.

Share lessons learned with the organization.

C.

Update the system's documentation.

D.

Allocate budget for penetration testing.

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Question # 72

An organization is planning to outsource the execution of its disaster recovery activities. Which of the following would be MOST important to include in the outsourcing agreement?

A.

Definition of when a disaster should be declared

B.

Requirements for regularly testing backups

C.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs)

D.

The disaster recovery communication plan

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Question # 73

The PRIMARY goal of the eradication phase in an incident response process is to:

A.

maintain a strict chain of custody.

B.

provide effective triage and containment of the incident.

C.

remove the threat and restore affected systems

D.

obtain forensic evidence from the affected system.

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Question # 74

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when aligning a security awareness program with the organization's business strategy?

A.

Regulations and standards

B.

People and culture

C.

Executive and board directives

D.

Processes and technology

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Question # 75

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of including incident classification criteria within an incident response plan?

A.

Ability to monitor and control incident management costs

B.

More visibility to the impact of disruptions

C.

Effective protection of information assets

D.

Optimized allocation of recovery resources

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Question # 76

Which of the following has the GREATEST influence on an organization's information security strategy?

A.

The organization's risk tolerance

B.

The organizational structure

C.

Industry security standards

D.

Information security awareness

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Question # 77

Which of the following is MOST important to convey to employees in building a security risk-aware culture?

A.

Personal information requires different security controls than sensitive information.

B.

Employee access should be based on the principle of least privilege.

C.

Understanding an information asset's value is critical to risk management.

D.

The responsibility for security rests with all employees.

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Question # 78

A newly appointed information security manager has been asked to update all security-related policies and procedures that have been static for five years or more. What should be done NEXT?

A.

Update in accordance with the best business practices.

B.

Perform a risk assessment of the current IT environment.

C.

Gain an understanding of the current business direction.

D.

Inventory and review current security policies.

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Question # 79

Prior to implementing a bring your own device (BYOD) program, it is MOST important to:

A.

select mobile device management (MDM) software.

B.

survey employees for requested applications.

C.

develop an acceptable use policy.

D.

review currently utilized applications.

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Question # 80

Which of the following is MOST important to have in place for an organization's information security program to be effective?

A.

Documented information security processes

B.

A comprehensive IT strategy

C.

Senior management support

D.

Defined and allocated budget

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Question # 81

When integrating security risk management into an organization it is MOST important to ensure:

A.

business units approve the risk management methodology.

B.

the risk treatment process is defined.

C.

information security policies are documented and understood.

D.

the risk management methodology follows an established framework.

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Question # 82

When investigating an information security incident, details of the incident should be shared:

A.

widely to demonstrate positive intent.

B.

only with management.

C.

only as needed,

D.

only with internal audit.

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Question # 83

To overcome the perception that security is a hindrance to business activities, it is important for an information security manager to:

A.

rely on senior management to enforce security.

B.

promote the relevance and contribution of security.

C.

focus on compliance.

D.

reiterate the necessity of security.

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Question # 84

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to identify and contain security incidents?

A.

Risk assessments

B.

Threat modeling

C.

Continuous monitoring

D.

Tabletop exercises

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Question # 85

In a business proposal, a potential vendor promotes being certified for international security standards as a measure of its security capability.

Before relying on this certification, it is MOST important that the information security manager confirms that the:

A.

current international standard was used to assess security processes.

B.

certification will remain current through the life of the contract.

C.

certification scope is relevant to the service being offered.

D.

certification can be extended to cover the client's business.

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Question # 86

Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to have in place to determine the effectiveness of information security governance?

A.

Security strategy

B.

Program metrics

C.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

Risk register

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Question # 87

Which of the following is the BEST way to obtain support for a new organization-wide information security program?

A.

Benchmark against similar industry organizations

B.

Deliver an information security awareness campaign.

C.

Publish an information security RACI chart.

D.

Establish an information security strategy committee.

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Question # 88

When developing an asset classification program, which of the following steps should be completed FIRST?

A.

Categorize each asset.

B.

Create an inventory. &

C.

Create a business case for a digital rights management tool.

D.

Implement a data loss prevention (OLP) system.

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Question # 89

To effectively manage an organization's information security risk, it is MOST important to:

A.

assign risk management responsibility to an experienced consultant.

B.

periodically identify and correct new systems vulnerabilities.

C.

establish and communicate risk tolerance.

D.

benchmark risk scenarios against peer organizations.

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Question # 90

Of the following, who should be assigned as the owner of a newly identified risk related to an organization's new payroll system?

A.

Data privacy officer

B.

Information security manager

C.

Head of IT department

D.

Head of human resources (HR)

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Question # 91

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the effectiveness of an incident response plan?

A.

Reviewing previous audit reports

B.

Conducting a tabletop exercise

C.

Benchmarking the plan against best practices

D.

Performing a penetration test

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Question # 92

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine if an information security profile is aligned with business requirements?

A.

Review the key performance indicator (KPI) dashboard

B.

Review security-related key risk indicators (KRIs)

C.

Review control self-assessment (CSA) results

D.

Review periodic security audits

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Question # 93

A new risk has been identified in a high availability system. The BEST course of action is to:

A.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis for mitigating controls

B.

Recommend risk acceptance to the business owner

C.

Develop and implement a plan to mitigate the identified risk

D.

Evaluate and prioritize the identified risk

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Question # 94

An information security team has discovered that users are sharing a login account to an application with sensitive information, in violation of the access policy. Business management indicates that the practice creates operational efficiencies. What is the information security manager's BEST course of action?

A.

Enforce the policy.

B.

Modify the policy.

C.

Present the risk to senior management.

D.

Create an exception for the deviation.

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Question # 95

Which of the following is MOST important to include in an information security strategy?

A.

Stakeholder requirements

B.

Risk register

C.

Industry benchmarks

D.

Regulatory requirements

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Question # 96

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to determine what activities and changes have occurred on a system during a cybersecurity incident?

A.

Computer forensics

B.

Continuous log monitoring

C.

Root cause analysis

D.

Penetration testing

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Question # 97

Which of the following is the BEST starting point for a newly hired information security manager who has been tasked with identifying and addressing network vulnerabilities?

A.

Controls analysis

B.

Emerging risk review

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Traffic monitoring

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Question # 98

To inform a risk treatment decision, which of the following should the information security manager compare with the organization's risk appetite?

A.

Gap analysis results

B.

Level of residual risk

C.

Level of risk treatment

D.

Configuration parameters

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Question # 99

Of the following, who is MOST appropriate to own the risk associated with the failure of a privileged access control?

A.

Data owner

B.

Business owner

C.

Information security manager

D.

Compliance manager

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Question # 100

An incident response team has established that an application has been breached. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

A.

Maintain the affected systems in a forensically acceptable state

B.

Conduct a risk assessment on the affected application

C.

Inform senior management of the breach.

D.

Isolate the impacted systems from the rest of the network

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Question # 101

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to ensure information security policies are understood?

A.

Implement a whistle-blower program.

B.

Provide regular security awareness training.

C.

Include security responsibilities in job descriptions.

D.

Document security procedures.

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Question # 102

Which of the following should be done FIRST when implementing a security program?

A.

Perform a risk analysis

B.

Implement data encryption.

C.

Create an information asset inventory.

D.

Determine the value of information assets.

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Question # 103

When performing a business impact analysis (BIA), who should calculate the recovery time and cost estimates?

A.

Business process owner

B.

Business continuity coordinator

C.

Senior management

D.

Information security manager

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Question # 104

A proposal designed to gain buy-in from senior management for a new security project will be MOST effective if it includes:

A.

analysis of current threat landscape.

B.

historical data of reported incidents.

C.

projected return on investment (ROI).

D.

industry benchmarking gap analysis.

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Question # 105

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration during the design phase of a business impact analysis (BIA)?

A.

Selecting quality metrics to monitor business performance

B.

Estimating the likelihood that end-to-end processes will be disrupted

C.

Obtaining reserve funding to prepare for possible business failures

D.

Identifying critical functions for business operations

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Question # 106

Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of managed security solutions?

A.

Wider range of capabilities

B.

Easier implementation across an organization

C.

Greater ability to focus on core business operations

D.

Lower cost of operations

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Question # 107

A small organization has a contract with a multinational cloud computing vendor. Which of the following would present the GREATEST concern to an information security manager if omitted from the contract?

A.

Right of the subscriber to conduct onsite audits of the vendor

B.

Escrow of software code with conditions for code release

C.

Authority of the subscriber to approve access to its data

D.

Commingling of subscribers' data on the same physical server

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Question # 108

Application data integrity risk is MOST directly addressed by a design that includes:

A.

reconciliation routines such as checksums, hash totals, and record counts.

B.

strict application of an authorized data dictionary.

C.

application log requirements such as field-level audit trails and user activity logs.

D.

access control technologies such as role-based entitlements.

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Question # 109

For an e-business that requires high availability, which of the following design principles is BEST?

A.

Manual failover to the website of another e-business that meets the user's needs

B.

A single point of entry allowing transactions to be received and processed quickly

C.

Intelligent middleware to direct transactions from a downed system to an alternative

D.

Availability of an adjacent cold site and a standby server with mirrored copies of critical data

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Question # 110

A finance department director has decided to outsource the organization's budget application and has identified potential providers. Which of the following actions should be initiated FIRST by IN information security manager?

A.

Determine the required security controls for the new solution

B.

Review the disaster recovery plans (DRPs) of the providers

C.

Obtain audit reports on the service providers' hosting environment

D.

Align the roles of the organization's and the service providers' stats.

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Question # 111

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST when creating an organization's disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

A.

Conduct a business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Identify the response and recovery learns.

C.

Review the communications plan.

D.

Develop response and recovery strategies.

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Question # 112

A startup company deployed several new applications with vulnerabilities into production because security reviews were not conducted. What will BEST help to ensure effective application risk management going forward?

A.

Conduct automated scans on applications before deployment.

B.

Supplement existing development teams with security engineers.

C.

Integrate information security into existing change management.

D.

Create a new governance council for application security.

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Question # 113

Who has the PRIMARY authority to decide if additional risk treatments are required to mitigate an identified risk?

A.

Information security manager

B.

IT risk manager

C.

Internal auditor

D.

Risk owner

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Question # 114

Threat and vulnerability assessments are important PRIMARILY because they are:

A.

used to establish security investments

B.

the basis for setting control objectives.

C.

elements of the organization's security posture.

D.

needed to estimate risk.

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Question # 115

An organization is aligning its incident response capability with a public cloud service provider. What should be the information security manager's FIRST course of action?

A.

Identify the skill set of the provider's incident response team.

B.

Evaluate the provider's audit logging and monitoring controls.

C.

Review the provider’s incident definitions and notification criteria.

D.

Update the incident escalation process.

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Question # 116

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to conduct a post-incident review?

A.

To aid in future risk assessments

B.

To improve the response process

C.

To determine whether digital evidence is admissible

D.

To notify regulatory authorities

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Question # 117

Network isolation techniques are immediately implemented after a security breach to:

A.

preserve evidence as required for forensics

B.

reduce the extent of further damage.

C.

allow time for key stakeholder decision making.

D.

enforce zero trust architecture principles.

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Question # 118

Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent insider threats?

A.

Enforce separation of duties and least privilege access.

B.

Conduct organization-wide security awareness training.

C.

Implement logging for all access activities.

D.

Implement strict security policies and password controls.

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Question # 119

Which of the following would be the BEST way for an information security manager to improve the effectiveness of an organization’s information security program?

A.

Focus on addressing conflicts between security and performance.

B.

Collaborate with business and IT functions in determining controls.

C.

Include information security requirements in the change control process.

D.

Obtain assistance from IT to implement automated security cantrals.

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Question # 120

During the initiation phase of the system development life cycle (SDLC) for a software project, information security activities should address:

A.

baseline security controls.

B.

benchmarking security metrics.

C.

security objectives.

D.

cost-benefit analyses.

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Question # 121

An organization is creating a risk mitigation plan that considers redundant power supplies to reduce the business risk associated with critical system outages. Which type of control is being considered?

A.

Preventive

B.

Corrective

C.

Detective

D.

Deterrent

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Question # 122

Which of the following is the BEST reason to implement an information security architecture?

A.

Assess the cost-effectiveness of the integration.

B.

Fast-track the deployment of information security components.

C.

Serve as a post-deployment information security road map.

D.

Facilitate consistent implementation of security requirements.

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Question # 123

Which of the following is MOST helpful in determining whether a phishing email is malicious?

A.

Security awareness training

B.

Reverse engineering

C.

Threat intelligence

D.

Sandboxing

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Question # 124

Which of the following should have the MOST influence on an organization's response to a new industry regulation?

A.

The organization's control objectives

B.

The organization's risk management framework

C.

The organization's risk appetite

D.

The organization's risk control baselines

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Question # 125

When deciding to move to a cloud-based model, the FIRST consideration should be:

A.

storage in a shared environment.

B.

availability of the data.

C.

data classification.

D.

physical location of the data.

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Question # 126

Information security controls should be designed PRIMARILY based on:

A.

a business impact analysis (BIA).

B.

regulatory requirements.

C.

business risk scenarios,

D.

a vulnerability assessment.

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Question # 127

The categorization of incidents is MOST important for evaluating which of the following?

A.

Appropriate communication channels

B.

Allocation of needed resources

C.

Risk severity and incident priority

D.

Response and containment requirements

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Question # 128

Which of the following should be an information security manager's PRIMARY concern when an organization is expanding business to a new country?

A.

Compliance with local regulations

B.

Changes in IT infrastructure

C.

Cultural differences in the new country

D.

Ability to gather customer data

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Question # 129

Which of the following trends would be of GREATEST concern when reviewing the performance of an organization's intrusion detection systems (IDSs)?

A.

Decrease in false positives

B.

Increase in false positives

C.

Increase in false negatives

D.

Decrease in false negatives

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Question # 130

Which of the following roles is accountable for ensuring the impact of a new regulatory framework on a business system is assessed?

A.

Senior management

B.

Application owner

C.

Information security manager

D.

Legal representative

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Question # 131

Recovery time objectives (RTOs) are an output of which of the following?

A.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

B.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

C.

Service level agreement (SLA)

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Question # 132

Which of the following metrics is MOST appropriate for evaluating the incident notification process?

A.

Average total cost of downtime per reported incident

B.

Elapsed time between response and resolution

C.

Average number of incidents per reporting period

D.

Elapsed time between detection, reporting, and response

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Question # 133

Which of the following is the MOST important reason for an information security manager to archive and retain the organization's electronic communication and email data?

A.

To track personal use of electronic communication by users

B.

To provide as evidence in legal proceedings when required

C.

To meet the requirements of global security standards

D.

To identify and scan attachments for malware

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Question # 134

Which of the following is the BEST approach when creating a security policy for a global organization subject to varying laws and regulations?

A.

Incorporate policy statements derived from third-party standards and benchmarks.

B.

Adhere to a unique corporate privacy and security standard

C.

Establish baseline standards for all locations and add supplemental standards as required

D.

Require that all locations comply with a generally accepted set of industry

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Question # 135

Senior management wants to thoroughly test a disaster recovery plan (DRP) for a mission-critical system. Which of the following would provide the MOST reliable results?

A.

Full interruption test

B.

Parallel test

C.

Simulation test

D.

Structured walk-through

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Question # 136

What should be the NEXT course of action when an information security manager has identified a department that is repeatedly not following the security policy?

A.

Perform a vulnerability assessment on the systems within the department.

B.

Introduce additional controls to force compliance with policy.

C.

Require department users to repeat security awareness training.

D.

Report the policy violation to senior management.

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Question # 137

An online bank identifies a successful network attack in progress. The bank should FIRST:

A.

isolate the affected network segment.

B.

report the root cause to the board of directors.

C.

assess whether personally identifiable information (Pll) is compromised.

D.

shut down the entire network.

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Question # 138

Which of the following is the responsibility of a risk owner?

A.

Implementing risk treatment plan activities with control owners

B.

Evaluating control effectiveness

C.

Approving risk treatment plans

D.

Approving the selection of risk mitigation measures

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Question # 139

Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for a vulnerability scanner to return incomplete results?

A.

Unauthenticated vulnerability scans are being performed.

B.

Scan results are not ingested into a security information and event management (SIEM) tool.

C.

Host names have not been fully enumerated.

D.

Zero-day vulnerability signatures have not been ingested.

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Question # 140

When drafting the corporate privacy statement for a public website, which of the following MUST be included?

A.

Limited liability clause

B.

Explanation of information usage

C.

Information encryption requirements

D.

Access control requirements

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Question # 141

A penetration test against an organization's external web application shows several vulnerabilities. Which of the following presents the GREATEST concern?

A.

A rules of engagement form was not signed prior to the penetration test

B.

Vulnerabilities were not found by internal tests

C.

Vulnerabilities were caused by insufficient user acceptance testing (UAT)

D.

Exploit code for one of the vulnerabilities is publicly available

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Question # 142

A global organization is considering its geopolitical security risks. Which of the following is the information security manager's BEST approach?

A.

Seek advice from environmental and physical security experts

B.

Implement a third-party risk management framework

C.

Implement controls that deny access from specific jurisdictions

D.

Seek advice from enterprise risk and legal experts

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Question # 143

The PRIMARY benefit of integrating information security activities into change management processes is to:

A.

protect the organization from unauthorized changes.

B.

ensure required controls are included in changes.

C.

provide greater accountability for security-related changes in the business.

D.

protect the business from collusion and compliance threats.

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Question # 144

Which of the following is the MOST important benefit of using a cloud access security broker when migrating to a cloud environment?

A.

Enhanced data governance

B.

Increased third-party assurance

C.

)Improved incident management

D.

Reduced total cost of ownership (TCO)

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Question # 145

Which of the following BEST facilitates recovery of data lost as a result of a cybersecurity incident?

A.

Removable storage media

B.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

C.

Offsite data backups

D.

Encrypted data drives

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Question # 146

Which of the following is the BEST approach for managing user access permissions to ensure alignment with data classification?

A.

Enable multi-factor authentication on user and admin accounts.

B.

Review access permissions annually or whenever job responsibilities change

C.

Lock out accounts after a set number of unsuccessful login attempts.

D.

Delegate the management of access permissions to an independent third party.

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Question # 147

A new information security manager finds that the organization tends to use short-term solutions to address problems. Resource allocation and spending are not effectively tracked, and there is no assurance that compliance requirements are being met. What should be done FIRST to reverse this bottom-up approach to security?

A.

Conduct a threat analysis.

B.

Implement an information security awareness training program.

C.

Establish an audit committee.

D.

Create an information security steering committee.

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Question # 148

Which of the following control types should be considered FIRST for aligning employee behavior with an organization's information security objectives?

A.

Administrative security controls

B.

Technical security controls

C.

Physical security controls

D.

Access security controls

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Question # 149

Which of the following is MOST important for an information security manager to consider when reviewing a security investment plan?

A.

The plan has summarized IT costs for implementation.

B.

The plan resolves all potential threats to business processes.

C.

The plan focuses on meeting industry best practices and industry standards.

D.

The plan is based on a review of threats and vulnerabilities.

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Question # 150

The MOST useful technique for maintaining management support for the information security program is:

A.

informing management about the security of business operations.

B.

implementing a comprehensive security awareness and training program.

C.

identifying the risks and consequences of failure to comply with standards.

D.

benchmarking the security programs of comparable organizations.

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Question # 151

After a recovery from a successful malware attack, instances of the malware continue to be discovered. Which phase of incident response was not successful?

A.

EradicationB Recovery

B.

Lessons learned review

C.

Incident declaration

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Question # 152

From an information security perspective, legal issues associated with a transborder flow of technology-related items are MOST often

A.

website transactions and taxation.

B.

software patches and corporate date.

C.

encryption tools and personal data.

D.

lack of competition and free trade.

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Question # 153

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to monitor key risk indicators (KRIs) related to information security?

A.

To alert on unacceptable risk

B.

To identify residual risk

C.

To reassess risk appetite

D.

To benchmark control performance

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Question # 154

An organization is considering the feasibility of implementing a big data solution to analyze customer data. In order to support this initiative, the information security manager should FIRST:

A.

inventory sensitive customer data to be processed by the solution.

B.

determine information security resource and budget requirements.

C.

assess potential information security risk to the organization.

D.

develop information security requirements for the big data solution.

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Question # 155

What should an information security manager do FIRST when an organization is planning to use a third-party cloud computing service for a critical business process?

A.

Identify the data to be hosted.

B.

Perform a gap analysis.

C.

Perform a risk assessment.

D.

Analyze the business requirements.

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Question # 156

Which of the following processes is MOST important for the success of a business continuity plan (BCP)?

A.

Involving all stakeholders in testing and training

B.

Scheduling periodic internal and external audits

C.

Including the board and senior management in plan reviews

D.

Maintaining copies of the plan at the primary and recovery sites

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Question # 157

Which of the following is the MOST important issue in a penetration test?

A.

Having an independent group perform the test

B.

Obtaining permission from audit

C.

Performing the test without the benefit of any insider knowledge

D.

Having a defined goal as well as success and failure criteria

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Question # 158

For which of the following is it MOST important that system administrators be restricted to read-only access?

A.

User access log files

B.

Administrator user profiles

C.

Administrator log files

D.

System logging options

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Question # 159

Which of the following BEST ensures timely and reliable access to services?

A.

Nonrepudiation

B.

Authenticity

C.

Availability

D.

Recovery time objective (RTO)

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Question # 160

Which is following should be an information security manager's PRIMARY focus during the development of a critical system storing highly confidential data?

A.

Reducing the number of vulnerabilities detected

B.

Ensuring the amount of residual risk is acceptable

C.

Avoiding identified system threats

D.

Complying with regulatory requirements

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Question # 161

Which of the following is the FIRST step in developing a business continuity plan (BCP)?

A.

Determine the business recovery strategy

B.

Determine available resources.

C.

Identify the applications with the shortest recovery time objectives (RTOs).

D.

Identify critical business processes.

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Question # 162

Which of the following BEST helps to ensure a risk response plan will be developed and executed in a timely manner?

A.

Establishing risk metrics

B.

Training on risk management procedures

C.

Reporting on documented deficiencies

D.

Assigning a risk owner

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Question # 163

The MAIN reason for having senior management review and approve an information security strategic plan is to ensure:

A.

the organization has the required funds to implement the plan.

B.

compliance with legal and regulatory requirements.

C.

staff participation in information security efforts.

D.

the plan aligns with corporate governance.

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Question # 164

If the investigation of an incident is not completed within the time allocated in the incident response plan, which of the following actions should be taken by the incident response team?

A.

Initiate the escalation process.

B.

Continue the investigation.

C.

Invoke the business continuity plan (BCP).

D.

Engage the crisis management team.

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Question # 165

Which of the following is the MOST critical consideration when shifting IT operations to an Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) model hosted in a foreign country?

A.

Labeling of data may help to ensure data is assigned to the correct cloud type.

B.

Laws and regulations of the origin country may not be applicable.

C.

There may be liabilities and penalties in the event of a security breach.

D.

Data may be stored in unknown locations and may not be easily retrievable.

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Question # 166

An information security manager has identified that privileged employee access requests to production servers are approved; but user actions are not logged. Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern with this situation?

A.

Lack of availability

B.

Lack of accountability

C.

Improper authorization

D.

Inadequate authentication

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Question # 167

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of a cyber resilience strategy?

A.

Business continuity

B.

Regulatory compliance

C.

Employee awareness

D.

Executive support

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Question # 168

Which of the following BEST enables an information security manager to obtain organizational support for the implementation of security controls?

A.

Conducting periodic vulnerability assessments

B.

Communicating business impact analysis (BIA) results

C.

Establishing effective stakeholder relationships

D.

Defining the organization's risk management framework

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Question # 169

A PRIMARY purpose of creating security policies is to:

A.

define allowable security boundaries.

B.

communicate management's security expectations.

C.

establish the way security tasks should be executed.

D.

implement management's security governance strategy.

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Question # 170

Which of the following BEST indicates that an organization has effectively tested its business continuity and disaster recovery plans within the stated recovery time objectives (RTOs)?

A.

Regulatory requirements are being met.

B.

Internal compliance requirements are being met.

C.

Risk management objectives are being met.

D.

Business needs are being met.

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Question # 171

Predetermined containment methods to be used in a cybersecurity incident response should be based PRIMARILY on the:

A.

number of impacted users.

B.

capability of incident handlers.

C.

type of confirmed incident.

D.

predicted incident duration.

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Question # 172

Which of the following is the BEST defense against a brute force attack?

A.

Time-of-day restrictions

B.

Mandatory access control

C.

Discretionary access control

D.

Multi-factor authentication (MFA)

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Question # 173

Which of the following is the BEST way to improve an organization's ability to detect and respond to incidents?

A.

Conduct a business impact analysis (BIA).

B.

Conduct periodic awareness training.

C.

Perform a security gap analysis.

D.

Perform network penetration testing.

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Question # 174

Which of the following should an organization do FIRST upon learning that a subsidiary is located in a country where civil unrest has just begun?

A.

Assess changes in the risk profile.

B.

Activate the disaster recovery plan (DRP).

C.

Invoke the incident response plan.

D.

Conduct security awareness training.

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Question # 175

An information security manager is MOST likely to obtain approval for a new security project when the business case provides evidence of:

A.

organizational alignment

B.

IT strategy alignment

C.

threats to the organization

D.

existing control costs

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Question # 176

Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration of business continuity management?

A.

Ensuring human safety

B.

Identifying critical business processes

C.

Ensuring the reliability of backup data

D.

Securing critical information assets

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Question # 177

The PRIMARY consideration when responding to a ransomware attack should be to ensure:

A.

backups are available.

B.

the most recent patches have been applied.

C.

the ransomware attack is contained

D.

the business can operate

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Question # 178

Which of the following is MOST important to maintain integration among the incident response plan, business continuity plan (BCP). and disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

A.

Asset classification

B.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs)

C.

Chain of custody

D.

Escalation procedures

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Question # 179

An organization has multiple data repositories across different departments. The information security manager has been tasked with creating an enterprise strategy for protecting data. Which of the following information security initiatives should be the HIGHEST priority for the organization?

A.

Data masking

B.

Data retention strategy

C.

Data encryption standards

D.

Data loss prevention (DLP)

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Question # 180

An information security manager has confirmed the organization's cloud provider has unintentionally published some of the organization's business data. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

A.

Identify users associated with the exposed data.

B.

Initiate the organization's data loss prevention (DLP) processes.

C.

Review the cloud provider's service level agreement (SLA).

D.

Invoke the incident response plan.

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Question # 181

In which cloud model does the cloud service buyer assume the MOST security responsibility?

A.

Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS)

B.

Infrastructure as a Service (laaS)

C.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

D.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

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Question # 182

Which of the following roles is PRIMARILY responsible for developing an information classification framework based on business needs?

A.

Information security manager

B.

Information security steering committee

C.

Information owner

D.

Senior management

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Question # 183

Which of the following is MOST effective in preventing the introduction of vulnerabilities that may disrupt the availability of a critical business application?

A.

A patch management process

B.

Version control

C.

Change management controls

D.

Logical access controls

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Question # 184

Which of the following is the BEST option to lower the cost to implement application security controls?

A.

Perform security tests in the development environment.

B.

Integrate security activities within the development process

C.

Perform a risk analysis after project completion.

D.

Include standard application security requirements

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Question # 185

Which risk is introduced when using only sanitized data for the testing of applications?

A.

Data loss may occur during the testing phase.

B.

Data disclosure may occur during the migration event

C.

Unexpected outcomes may arise in production

D.

Breaches of compliance obligations will occur.

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Question # 186

Which of the following BEST facilitates effective strategic alignment of security initiatives?

A.

The business strategy is periodically updated

B.

Procedures and standards are approved by department heads.

C.

Periodic security audits are conducted by a third-party.

D.

Organizational units contribute to and agree on priorities

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Question # 187

Which of the following roles has the PRIMARY responsibility to ensure the operating effectiveness of IT controls?

A.

Risk owner

B.

Control tester

C.

IT compliance leader

D.

Information security manager

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Question # 188

Which of the following BEST enables the restoration of operations after a limited ransomware incident occurs?

A.

Reliable image backups

B.

Impact assessment

C.

Documented eradication procedures

D.

Root cause analysis

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Question # 189

When developing an information security strategy for an organization, which of the following is MOST helpful for understanding where to focus efforts?

A.

Gap analysis

B.

Project plans

C.

Vulnerability assessment

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Question # 190

An organization finds it necessary to quickly shift to a work-fromhome model with an increased need for remote access security.

Which of the following should be given immediate focus?

A.

Moving to a zero trust access model

B.

Enabling network-level authentication

C.

Enhancing cyber response capability

D.

Strengthening endpoint security

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Question # 191

Which of the following is MOST relevant for an information security manager to communicate to the board of directors?

A.

The level of inherent risk

B.

Vulnerability assessments

C.

The level of exposure

D.

Threat assessments

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Question # 192

When an organization lacks internal expertise to conduct highly technical forensics investigations, what is the BEST way to ensure effective and timely investigations following an information security incident?

A.

Purchase forensic standard operating procedures.

B.

Provide forensics training to the information security team.

C.

Ensure the incident response policy allows hiring a forensics firm.

D.

Retain a forensics firm prior to experiencing an incident.

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Question # 193

Which of the following is the MOST important role of the information security manager when the organization is in the process of adopting emerging technologies?

A.

Assessing how peer organizations using the same technologies have been impacted

B.

Understanding the impact on existing resources

C.

Reviewing vendor contracts and service level agreements (SLAs)

D.

Developing training for end users to familiarize them with the new technology

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Question # 194

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of testing security controls within a critical infrastructure?

A.

Ensuring the continued resilience and security of IT services

B.

Decreasing the percentage of security deployments that cause failures in production

C.

Reducing the number of control assessments to optimize resources

D.

Identifying and addressing security team performance issues

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Question # 195

A multinational organization is required to follow governmental regulations with different security requirements at each of its operating locations. The chief information security officer (CISO) should be MOST concerned with:

A.

developing a security program that meets global and regional requirements.

B.

ensuring effective communication with local regulatory bodies.

C.

using industry best practice to meet local legal regulatory requirements.

D.

monitoring compliance with defined security policies and standards.

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Question # 196

Which is the BEST method to evaluate the effectiveness of an alternate processing site when continuous uptime is required?

A.

Parallel test

B.

Full interruption test

C.

Simulation test

D.

Tabletop test

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Question # 197

Which of the following BEST protects against emerging advanced persistent threat (APT) actors?

A.

Honeypot environment

B.

Updated security awareness materials

C.

Ongoing incident response training

D.

Proactive monitoring

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Question # 198

An organization has received complaints from users that some of their files have been encrypted. These users are receiving demands for money to decrypt the files. Which of the following would be the BEST course of action?

A.

Conduct an impact assessment.

B.

Isolate the affected systems.

C.

Rebuild the affected systems.

D.

Initiate incident response.

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Question # 199

Which of the following is the BEST strategy when determining an organization's approach to risk treatment?

A.

Implementing risk mitigation controls that are considered quick wins

B.

Prioritizing controls that directly mitigate the organization's most critical risks

C.

Advancing the maturity of existing controls based on risk tolerance

D.

Implementing a one-size-fits-all set of controls across all organizational units

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Question # 200

The results of a risk assessment for a potential network reconfiguration reveal a high likelihood of sensitive data being compromised. What is the information security manager's BEST course of

action?

A.

Recommend additional network segmentation.

B.

Seek an independent opinion to confirm the findings.

C.

Determine alignment with existing regulations.

D.

Report findings to key stakeholders.

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Question # 201

Which of the following is MOST likely to reduce the effectiveness of a SIEM system?

A.

Lack of multi-factor authentication (MFA) for system access

B.

Weakly encrypted log files

C.

Misconfiguration of alert thresholds

D.

Complex user interface

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Question # 202

A post-incident review identified that user error resulted in a major breach. Which of the following is MOST important to determine during the review?

A.

The time and location that the breach occurred

B.

Evidence of previous incidents caused by the user

C.

The underlying reason for the user error

D.

Appropriate disciplinary procedures for user error

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Question # 203

When updating the information security policy to accommodate a new regulation, the information security manager should FIRST:

A.

Review key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Perform a gap analysis

C.

Consult process owners

D.

Update key performance indicators (KPIs)

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Question # 204

During which of the following development phases is it MOST challenging to implement security controls?

A.

Post-implementation phase

B.

Implementation phase

C.

Development phase

D.

Design phase

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Question # 205

An organization has introduced a new bring your own device (BYOD) program. The security manager has determined that a small number of employees are utilizing free cloud storage services to store company data through their mobile devices. Which of the following is the MOST effective course of action?

A.

Allow the practice to continue temporarily for monitoring purposes.

B.

Disable the employees' remote access to company email and data

C.

Initiate remote wipe of the devices

D.

Assess the business need to provide a secure solution

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Question # 206

An information security manager believes that information has been classified inappropriately, = the risk of a breach. Which of the following is the information security manager's BEST action?

A.

Refer the issue to internal audit for a recommendation.

B.

Re-classify the data and increase the security level to meet business risk.

C.

Instruct the relevant system owners to reclassify the data.

D.

Complete a risk assessment and refer the results to the data owners.

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Question # 207

Which of the following activities is designed to handle a control failure that leads to a breach?

A.

Risk assessment

B.

Incident management

C.

Root cause analysis

D.

Vulnerability management

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Question # 208

An organization is transitioning to a Zero Trust architecture. Which of the following is the information security manager's BEST approach for communicating the implications of this transition to the board of directors?

A.

Present a diagram of core Zero Trust logical components to help visualize the architectural changes

B.

Summarize the training plan and end user feedback in an internal portal and send the link to the board

C.

Prepare a report on the Zero Trust implementation that includes a status dashboard and timeline

D.

Provide an outline of the business impact in terms of risk reduction and changes in user experience

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Question # 209

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to document information security incidents that are reported across the organization?

A.

Evaluate the security posture of the organization.

B.

Identify unmitigated risk.

C.

Prevent incident recurrence.

D.

Support business investments in security.

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Question # 210

Which of the following is the BEST way to help ensure an organization's risk appetite will be considered as part of the risk treatment process?

A.

Establish key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Use quantitative risk assessment methods.

C.

Provide regular reporting on risk treatment to senior management

D.

Require steering committee approval of risk treatment plans.

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Question # 211

Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to have in place to determine the effectiveness of information security governance?

A.

Program metrics

B.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

C.

Risk register

D.

Security strategy

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Question # 212

Which of the following is a function of the information security steering committee?

A.

Deliver external communication during incident response.

B.

Align the security framework with security standards.

C.

Align security strategy with business objectives.

D.

Monitor regulatory requirements.

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Question # 213

An organization's security policy is to disable access to USB storage devices on laptops and desktops. Which of the following is the STRONGEST justification for granting an exception to the policy?

A.

The benefit is greater than the potential risk.

B.

USB storage devices are enabled based on user roles.

C.

Users accept the risk of noncompliance.

D.

Access is restricted to read-only.

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Question # 214

An organization's information security manager is performing a post-incident review of a security incident in which the following events occurred:

• A bad actor broke into a business-critical FTP server by brute forcing an administrative password

• The third-party service provider hosting the server sent an automated alert message to the help desk, but was ignored

• The bad actor could not access the administrator console, but was exposed to encrypted data transferred to the server

• After three hours, the bad actor deleted the FTP directory, causing incoming FTP attempts by legitimate customers to fail

Which of the following could have been prevented by conducting regular incident response testing?

A.

Ignored alert messages

B.

The server being compromised

C.

The brute force attack

D.

Stolen data

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Question # 215

Due to specific application requirements, a project team has been granted administrative ponieon GR: is the PRIMARY reason for ensuring clearly defined roles and responsibilities are communicated to these users?

A.

Clearer segregation of duties

B.

Increased user productivity

C.

Increased accountability

D.

Fewer security incidents

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Question # 216

What type of control is being implemented when a security information and event management (SIEM) system is installed?

A.

Preventive

B.

Deterrent

C.

Detective

D.

Corrective

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Question # 217

Which of the following tasks should be performed once a disaster recovery plan (DRP) has been developed?

A.

Develop the test plan.

B.

Analyze the business impact.

C.

Define response team roles.

D.

Identify recovery time objectives (RTOs).

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Question # 218

Which of the following is the BEST way to assess the risk associated with using a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor?

A.

Verify that information security requirements are included in the contract.

B.

Request customer references from the vendor.

C.

Require vendors to complete information security questionnaires.

D.

Review the results of the vendor's independent control reports.

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Question # 219

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to determine the costs of downtime for a critical application?

A.

Fault tree analysis

B.

Cost-benefit analysis

C.

Return on investment (ROI) analysis

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Question # 220

Which of the following defines the triggers within a business continuity plan (BCP)? @

A.

Needs of the organization

B.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

C.

Information security policy

D.

Gap analysis

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Question # 221

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to assign a risk owner in an organization?

A.

To remediate residual risk

B.

To define responsibilities

C.

To ensure accountability

D.

To identify emerging risk

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Question # 222

After updating password standards, an information security manager is alerted by various application administrators that the applications they support are incapable of enforcing these standards. The information security manager's FIRST course of action should be to:

A.

determine the potential impact.

B.

reevaluate the standards.

C.

implement compensating controls.

D.

evaluate the cost of replacing the applications.

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Question # 223

Which of the following is MOST important to the effectiveness of an information security steering committee?

A.

The committee has strong regulatory knowledge.

B.

The committee is comprised of representatives from senior management.

C.

The committee has cross-organizational representation.

D.

The committee uses a risk management framework.

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Question # 224

An incident management team leader sends out a notification that the organization has successfully recovered from a cyberattack. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

A.

Prepare an executive summary for senior management

B.

Gather feedback on business impact

C.

Conduct a meeting to capture lessons learned.

D.

Secure and preserve digital evidence for analysis.

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Question # 225

Management of a financial institution accepted an operational risk that consequently led to the temporary deactivation to a critical monitoring process. Which of the following should be the information security manager's GREATEST concern with this situation?

A.

Impact on compliance risk.

B.

Inability to determine short-term impact.

C.

Impact on the risk culture.

D.

Deviation from risk management best practices

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Question # 226

An incident response plan is being developed for servers hosting sensitive information. In the event of a breach, who should make the decision to shut down the system?

A.

Operations manager

B.

Service owner

C.

Information security manager

D.

Incident response team

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Question # 227

Which of the following is MOST important when responding to a major security incident?

A.

Contacting forensic investigators

B.

Following the escalation process

C.

Notifying law enforcement

D.

Identifying the indicators of compromise

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Question # 228

When is the BEST time to verify that a production system's security mechanisms meet control objectives?

A.

During quality and acceptance checks

B.

On a continuous basis through monitoring activities and automated tooling

C.

After remediations recommended by penetration tests have been completed

D.

During annual internal and compliance audits

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Question # 229

How would the information security program BEST support the adoption of emerging technologies?

A.

Conducting a control assessment

B.

Developing an emerging technology roadmap

C.

Providing effective risk governance

D.

Developing an acceptable use policy

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Question # 230

An organization is planning to outsource network management to a service provider. Including which of the following in the contract would be the MOST effective way to mitigate information security risk?

A.

Requirement for regular information security awareness

B.

Right-to-audit clause

C.

Service level agreement (SLA)

D.

Requirement to comply with corporate security policy

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Question # 231

Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern for an information security manager when an annual audit reveals the organization's business continuity plan (BCP) has not been reviewed or updated in more than a year?

A.

An outdated BCP may result in less efficient recovery if an actual incident occurs.

B.

The organization may suffer reputational damage for not following industry best practices.

C.

The audit finding may impact the overall risk rating of the organization.

D.

The lack of updates to the BCP may result in noncompliance with internal policies.

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Question # 232

Which of the following has The GREATEST positive impact on The ability to execute a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

A.

Storing the plan at an offsite location

B.

Communicating the plan to all stakeholders

C.

Updating the plan periodically

D.

Conducting a walk-through of the plan

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Question # 233

Which of the following is the BEST way lo monitor for advanced persistent threats (APT) in an organization?

A.

Network with peers in the industry to share information.

B.

Browse the Internet to team of potential events

C.

Search for anomalies in the environment

D.

Search for threat signatures in the environment.

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Question # 234

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of an emerging incident?

A.

A weakness identified within an organization's information systems

B.

Customer complaints about lack of website availability

C.

A recent security incident at an industry competitor

D.

Attempted patching of systems resulting in errors

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Question # 235

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure the business continuity plan (BCP) is current?

A.

Manage business process changes.

B.

Update business impact analyses (BIAs) on a regular basis.

C.

Conduct periodic testing.

D.

Review and update emergency contact lists.

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Question # 236

A business requires a legacy version of an application to operate but the application cannot be patched. To limit the risk exposure to the business, a firewall is implemented in front of the legacy application. Which risk treatment option has been applied?

A.

Mitigate

B.

Accept

C.

Transfer

D.

Avoid

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Question # 237

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to effectively manage emerging cyber risk?

A.

Periodic internal and external audits

B.

Clear lines of responsibility

C.

Sufficient cyber budget allocation

D.

Cybersecurity policies

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Question # 238

An information security manager learns that a risk owner has approved exceptions to replace key controls with weaker compensating controls to improve process efficiency. Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern?

A.

Risk levels may be elevated beyond acceptable limits.

B.

Security audits may report more high-risk findings.

C.

The compensating controls may not be cost efficient.

D.

Noncompliance with industry best practices may result.

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Question # 239

The use of a business case to obtain funding for an information security investment is MOST effective when the business case:

A.

relates the investment to the organization's strategic plan.

B.

translates information security policies and standards into business requirements.

C.

articulates management's intent and information security directives in clear language.

D.

realigns information security objectives to organizational strategy.

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Question # 240

Which of the following is an example of risk mitigation?

A.

Purchasing insurance

B.

Discontinuing the activity associated with the risk

C.

Improving security controls

D.

Performing a cost-benefit analysis

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Question # 241

A common drawback of email software packages that provide native encryption of messages is that the encryption:

A.

cannot encrypt attachments

B.

cannot interoperate across product domains.

C.

has an insufficient key length.

D.

has no key-recovery mechanism.

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Question # 242

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when developing key performance indicators (KPIs) for the information security program?

A.

Alignment with financial reporting

B.

Alignment with business initiatives

C.

Alignment with industry frameworks

D.

Alignment with risk appetite

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Question # 243

In the context of developing an information security strategy, which of the following provides the MOST useful input to determine the or

A.

Security budget

B.

Risk register

C.

Risk score

D.

Laws and regulations

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Question # 244

Which of the following is the sole responsibility of the client organization when adopting a Software as a Service (SaaS) model?

A.

Host patching

B.

Penetration testing

C.

Infrastructure hardening

D.

Data classification

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Question # 245

Which of the following should be established FIRST when implementing an information security governance framework?

A.

Security architecture

B.

Security policies

C.

Security incident management team

D.

Security awareness training program

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Question # 246

What is the PRIMARY objective of implementing standard security configurations?

A.

Maintain a flexible approach to mitigate potential risk to unsupported systems.

B.

Minimize the operational burden of managing and monitoring unsupported systems.

C.

Control vulnerabilities and reduce threats from changed configurations.

D.

Compare configurations between supported and unsupported systems.

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Question # 247

Business objectives and organizational risk appetite are MOST useful inputs to the development of information security:

A.

strategy.

B.

risk assessments.

C.

key performance indicators (KPIs).

D.

standards.

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Question # 248

The MOST appropriate time to conduct a disaster recovery test would be after:

A.

major business processes have been redesigned.

B.

the business continuity plan (BCP) has been updated.

C.

the security risk profile has been reviewed

D.

noncompliance incidents have been filed.

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Question # 249

Which of the following is the BEST way to help ensure alignment of the information security program with organizational objectives?

A.

Establish an information security steering committee.

B.

Employ a process-based approach for information asset classification.

C.

Utilize an industry-recognized risk management framework.

D.

Provide security awareness training to board executives.

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Question # 250

Which of the following should be considered FIRST when recovering a compromised system that needs a complete rebuild?

A.

Patch management files

B.

Network system logs

C.

Configuration management files

D.

Intrusion detection system (IDS) logs

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Question # 251

Which of the following has the GREATEST impact on efforts to improve an organization's security posture?

A.

Regular reporting to senior management

B.

Supportive tone at the top regarding security

C.

Automation of security controls

D.

Well-documented security policies and procedures

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Question # 252

Which of the following would be the GREATEST obstacle to implementing incident notification and escalation processes in an organization with high turnover?

A.

Lack of knowledgeable personnel

B.

Lack of communication processes

C.

Lack of process documentation

D.

Lack of alignment with organizational goals

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Question # 253

Labeling information according to its security classification:

A.

enhances the likelihood of people handling information securely.

B.

reduces the number and type of countermeasures required.

C.

reduces the need to identify baseline controls for each classification.

D.

affects the consequences if information is handled insecurely.

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Question # 254

In an organization with a rapidly changing environment, business management has accepted an information security risk. It is MOST important for the information security manager to ensure:

A.

change activities are documented.

B.

the rationale for acceptance is periodically reviewed.

C.

the acceptance is aligned with business strategy.

D.

compliance with the risk acceptance framework.

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Question # 255

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST upon confirming a privileged user's unauthorized modifications to a security application?

A.

Report the risk associated with the policy breach.

B.

Enforce the security configuration and require the change to be reverted.

C.

Implement compensating controls to address the risk.

D.

Implement a privileged access management system.

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Question # 256

To prepare for a third-party forensics investigation following an incident involving malware, the incident response team should:

A.

isolate the infected systems.

B.

preserve the evidence.

C.

image the infected systems.

D.

clean the malware.

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Question # 257

During the implementation of a new system, which of the following processes proactively minimizes the likelihood of disruption, unauthorized alterations, and errors?

A.

Configuration management

B.

Password management

C.

Change management

D.

Version management

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Question # 258

Of the following, whose input is of GREATEST importance in the development of an information security strategy?

A.

Process owners

B.

End users

C.

Security architects.

D.

Corporate auditors

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Question # 259

Which of the following factors would have the MOST significant impact on an organization's information security governance mode?

A.

Outsourced processes

B.

Security budget

C.

Number of employees

D.

Corporate culture

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Question # 260

When preventive controls to appropriately mitigate risk are not feasible, which of the following is the MOST important action for the information security manager?

A.

Managing the impact

B.

Identifying unacceptable risk levels

C.

Assessing vulnerabilities

D.

Evaluating potential threats

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Question # 261

Which of the following is MOST important when designing security controls for new cloud-based services?

A.

Evaluating different types of deployment models according to the associated risks

B.

Understanding the business and IT strategy for moving resources to the cloud

C.

Defining an incident response policy to protect data moving between onsite and cloud applications

D.

Performing a business impact analysis (BIA) to gather information needed to develop recovery strategies

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Question # 262

Which of the following is MOST important to include in a report to key stakeholders regarding the effectiveness of an information security program?

A.

Security metrics

B.

Security baselines

C.

Security incident details

D.

Security risk exposure

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Question # 263

An incident response team recently encountered an unfamiliar type of cyber event. Though the team was able to resolve the issue, it took a significant amount of time to identify. What is the BEST way to help ensure similar incidents are identified more quickly in the future?

A.

Establish performance metrics for the team

B.

Perform a post-incident review

C.

Implement a SIEM solution

D.

Perform a threat analysis

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Question # 264

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action during the containment phase of a cyber incident response?

A.

Isolate affected systems to prevent the spread of damage

B.

Determine the final root cause of the incident

C.

Mitigate exploited vulnerabilities to prevent future incidents

D.

Remove all instances of the incident from the network

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Question # 265

An information security manager has been made aware of a new data protection regulation that will soon go into effect. Which of the following is the BEST way to manage the risk of noncompliance?

A.

Perform a gap analysis.

B.

Consult with senior management on the best course of action.

C.

Implement a program of work to comply with the new legislation.

D.

Understand the cost of noncompliance.

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Question # 266

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information for identifying security control gaps on an application server?

A.

Risk assessments

B.

Threat models

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Internal audit reports

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Question # 267

An information security manager is assisting in the development of the request for proposal (RFP) for a new outsourced service. This will require the third party to have access to critical business information. The security manager should focus PRIMARILY on defining:

A.

service level agreements (SLAs)

B.

security requirements for the process being outsourced.

C.

risk-reporting methodologies.

D.

security metrics

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Question # 268

Which of the following should be done FIRST when developing a business continuity plan (BCP)?

A.

Review current recovery policies.

B.

Define the organizational strategy.

C.

Prioritize the critical processes.

D.

Review existing cyber insurance coverage.

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Question # 269

An organization plans to utilize Software as a Service (SaaS) and is in the process of selecting a vendor. What should the information security manager do FIRST to support this initiative?

A.

Review independent security assessment reports for each vendor.

B.

Benchmark each vendor's services with industry best practices.

C.

Analyze the risks and propose mitigating controls.

D.

Define information security requirements and processes.

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Question # 270

An organization has decided to implement an Internet of Things (IoT) solution to remain competitive in the market. Which of the following should information security do FIRST?

A.

Recalculate risk profile

B.

Implement compensating controls

C.

Reassess risk tolerance levels

D.

Update the security architecture

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Question # 271

An incident response team has been assembled from a group of experienced individuals, Which type of exercise would be MOST beneficial for the team at the first drill?

A.

Red team exercise

B.

Black box penetration test

C.

Disaster recovery exercise

D.

Tabletop exercise

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Question # 272

Which of the following is MOST important to determine following the discovery and eradication of a malware attack?

A.

The malware entry path

B.

The creator of the malware

C.

The type of malware involved

D.

The method of detecting the malware

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Question # 273

How does an organization PRIMARILY benefit from the creation of an information security steering committee?

A.

An increase in information security risk awareness

B.

An increased alignment with industry security trends that impact the business

C.

An increased focus on information security resource management

D.

An increased alignment of information security with the business

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Question # 274

Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of an information security manager in a software development project?

A.

To enhance awareness for secure software design

B.

To assess and approve the security application architecture

C.

To identify noncompliance in the early design stage

D.

To identify software security weaknesses

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Question # 275

Which of the following is an information security manager's BEST course of action when a penetration test reveals a security exposure due to a firewall that is not configured correctly?

A.

Ensure a plan with milestones is developed.

B.

Implement a distributed denial of service (DDoS) control.

C.

Engage the incident response team.

D.

Define new key performance indicators (KPIs).

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Question # 276

The PRIMARY reason to properly classify information assets is to determine:

A.

appropriate encryption strength using a risk-based approach.

B.

the business impact if assets are compromised.

C.

the appropriate protection based on sensitivity.

D.

user access levels based on the need to know.

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Question # 277

When performing a business impact analysis (BIA), who should be responsible for determining the initial recovery time objective (RTO)?

A.

External consultant

B.

Information owners

C.

Information security manager

D.

Business continuity coordinator

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Question # 278

An organization is selecting security metrics to measure security performance, and a firewall specialist suggests tracking the number of external attacks blocked by the firewalls. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern with using this metric?

A.

The number of blocked external attacks is not representative of the true threat profile.

B.

The number of blocked external attacks will vary by month, causing inconsistent graphs.

C.

The number of blocked external attacks is an indicator of the organization's popularity.

D.

The number of blocked external attacks over time does not explain the attackers' motivations.

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Question # 279

An enterprise has decided to procure security services from a third-party vendor to support its information security program. Which of the following is MOST important to include in the vendor selection criteria?

A.

Feedback from the vendor's previous clients

B.

Alignment of the vendor's business objectives with enterprise security goals

C.

The maturity of the vendor's internal control environment

D.

Penetration testing against the vendor's network

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Question # 280

What is the role of the information security manager in finalizing contract negotiations with service providers?

A.

To perform a risk analysis on the outsourcing process

B.

To obtain a security standard certification from the provider

C.

To update security standards for the outsourced process

D.

To ensure that clauses for periodic audits are included

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Question # 281

A business continuity plan (BCP) should contain:

A.

information about eradication activities.

B.

hardware and software inventories.

C.

data restoration procedures.

D.

criteria for activation.

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Question # 282

Which of the following has the MOST influence on the inherent risk of an information asset?

A.

Risk tolerance

B.

Net present value (NPV)

C.

Return on investment (ROI)

D.

Business criticality

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Question # 283

An organization engages a third-party vendor to monitor and support a financial application under scrutiny by regulators. Which of the following controls would MOST effectively manage risk to the organization?

A.

Implementing separation of duties between systems and data

B.

Including penalty clauses for noncompliance in the vendor contract

C.

Disabling vendor access and only re-enabling when access is needed

D.

Monitoring key risk indicators (KRIs)

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