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ISTQB-CTFL Questions and Answers

Question # 6

Which of the following is a function of a dynamic analysis tool?

A.

Provide support for traceability of tests, test results and incidents to source documents

B.

Monitor the allocation, use and de-allocation of memory during run-time of a program

C.

Execute programs step-by-step in order to reproduce failures and find corresponding defects

D.

Provide support for release of baselines consisting of configuration items

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Question # 7

A system computes prices for bus tickets. The price depends on

- the passenger type (baby, child, adult, senior citizen, student, military)

- the travelling type (as single or in a group)

- the distance (zone 1. 2. 3)

- the kind of transport (ordinary, express)

Which of the following test techniques is the most appropriate one for testing the price computation?

A.

Statement coverage

B.

State transition testing

C.

Equivalence partitioning

D.

Use case testing

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Question # 8

A test status report SHOULD:

A.

Specify the impediments to carrying out the planned test activities in the reporting period and the corresponding solutions put in place to remove them

B.

Be produced as part of test completion activities and report unmitigated product risks to support the decision whether or not to release the product

C.

Always be based on the same template within an organisation, as its structure and contents should not be affected by the audience to which the report is presented.

D.

Specify the lines of communication between testing, other lifecycle activities, and within the organisation that were chosen at the outset of the test project.

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Question # 9

The four test levels used in ISTQB syllabus are:

1. Component (unit) testing

2. Integration testing

3. System testing

4. Acceptance testing

An organization wants to do away with integration testing but otherwise follow V-model. Which of the following statements is correct?

A.

It is allowed as organizations can decide on men test levels to do depending on the context of the system under test

B.

It is allowed because integration testing is not an important test level arc! can be dispensed with.

C.

It is not allowed because integration testing is a very important test level and ignoring i: means definite poor product quality

D.

It is not allowed as organizations can't change the test levels as these are chosen on the basis of the SDLC (software development life cycle) model

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Question # 10

As a result of the joint evaluation of a product version with the customer, it has been concluded that it would be appropriate to retrieve an earlier version of the product and carry out a benchmark. Depending on the result, further development will be carried out based on the current version or the retrieved version.

Which mechanism, process, and/or technique will allow the specific version (including the testing work products) of a given software product to be restored?

A.

Defect management

B.

Configuration management

C.

Change management

D.

Risk management

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Question # 11

A possible risk of introducing test automation is:

A.

the tool may not be fit-for-purpose.

B.

the tool may create additional development dependencies.

C.

the tool may not be compatible with the development platform.

D.

the tool will be owned and maintained by developers and replace testers.

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Question # 12

The following decision table is used to assist a doctor in determining the drug therapy to prescribe for a patient (aged 6 to 65 years) diagnosed with acute sinusitis. The table consists of three Boolean conditions and six actions

Based only on the given information, which of the following statements is TRUE?

A.

Column 7 represents an impossible situation and thus can be deleted

B.

Columns 1 and 3 can be merged into a single column

C.

Columns 2, 4, 6 and 8 can be merged into a single column

D.

Columns 5 and 7 can be merged into a single column

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Question # 13

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the involvement of testers in the software development lifecycle (SDLC)?

A.

Testers should contribute to all activities in the SDLC and participate in design discussions.

B.

Testers should be involved from the beginning of the SDLC to increase understanding of design decisions and detect defects early.

C.

Testers should only be involved during the testing phase.

D.

Testers' involvement is essential; developers find it difficult to be objective.

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Question # 14

You are testing the latest version of an air-traffic control system prior to production deployment using exploratory testing. After following an unusual sequence of input steps,the system crashes. After the crash, you document a defect report with the following information:

•Title: System crashes unexpectedly during input.

•Brief summary: System crashes when an unusual sequence of inputs is used.

•Version: V1.001

•Test: Exploratory testing prior to production deployment

•Priority: Urgent

•Risk: High

•References: Screenshot of crashed application

What critical Information Is missing from this report?

A.

Conclusions, recommendations, and approvals.

B.

Change history.

C.

Description of the defect to enable reproduction.

D.

Status of defect

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Question # 15

Decision table testing is being performed on transactions in a bank’s ATM (Automated Teller Machine) system. Two test cases have already been generated for rules 1 and 4. which are shown below:

Which two of the additional test cases would achieve full coverage of the full decision table (when combined with the test cases that have already been generated for rules 1 and 4)?

A.

DT1, DT4

B.

DT3, DT4

C.

DT2, DT3

D.

DT1.DT2

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Question # 16

Which of the following statements regarding inspection isNOTtrue?

A.

An inspection may be led by a trained moderator who shall not be the author.

B.

The main purpose of an inspection is to find solutions to the problems.

C.

An inspection can be performed by peers.

D.

An inspection shall follow a formal process based on rules and checklists with entry and exit criteria

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Question # 17

The following 4 equivalence classes are given:

Which of the following alternatives includes correct test values for x. based on equivalence partitioning?

A.

-100; 100:1000; 1001

B.

-500; 0; 100; 1000

C.

-99; 99:101; 1001

D.

-1000; -100; 100; 1000

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Question # 18

4 equivalence classes are given for integer values:

0 < x <100

100<= x <= 200

200 < x < 500

x >= 500

Which of the following options represent correct set of data for valid equivalence class partitions?

A.

50; 100; 200. 1000

B.

0. 1.99, 100.200,201.499, 500;

C.

0.50; 100; 150.200.350.500;

D.

50; 100; 250; 1000

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Question # 19

Given the following state model of sales order software:

    PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION

    IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED

    IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED

    SHIPPED -> INVOICED

    INVOICED -> CANCELLED

    CANCELLED -> PLACED

Which of the following sequences of tran-sitions provides the highest level of tran-sition coverage for the model (assuming you can start in any state)?

A.

IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED

B.

IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> INVOICED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION

C.

PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED

D.

PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED

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Question # 20

Which of the following is a key characteristic of informal reviews?

A.

Kick-off meeting

B.

Low cost

C.

Individual preparation

D.

Metrics analysis

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Question # 21

For the following pseudo-code determine number of tests required for 100% statement coverage

IF Gender = Boy

If Age > 3 AND Age < 5

Shoe Size = 1

ELSE IF Age >=5 AND Age < 7

Shoe Size = 2

ENDIF

ELSE

IF Age > 3 AND Age < 5

Shoe Size = 0

ELSE IF Age >=5 AND Age < 7

Shoe Size = 1

ENDIF

ENDIF

A.

6

B.

4

C.

2

D.

6

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Question # 22

ST is a Software Testing organization which utilizes a testing knowledge base. Access to ST knowledge base can be either full or limited. Access level is determined based on ST certification and testing experience as follows:

1. If ST certified, with less than 5 years testing experience - allow limited access

2. If ST certified, 5-10 years of testing experience - allow full access

3. If not ST certified with 5-10 years of testing experience - allow limited access.

What would be the results for:

A - ST certified. 12 years of testing experience

B - Not ST certified. 7 years of testing experience

C - Not ST certified. 3 years of testing experience

A.

A - unknown

B - limned access

C- unknown

B.

A - full access

B - limited access

C - unknown

C.

A - full access

B - limited access

C - limited access

D.

A - unknown

B - full access

C - unknown

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Question # 23

A calculator software is used to calculate the result for 5+6.

The user noticed that the result given is 6.

This is an example of;

A.

Mistake

B.

Fault

C.

Error

D.

Failure

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Question # 24

Which ONE of the following options BEST describes a key characteristic of non-functional testing?

A.

Performing non-functional testing starting at the system test level.

B.

Conducting non-functional testing exclusively at the acceptance test level.

C.

Limiting non-functional testing to security testing and performance testing only.

D.

Ensuring non-functional testing focuses only on user experience and usability.

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Question # 25

Match each objective to the correct test level

Objective:

A)Verifying whetherthe functionalandnon-functlonalbehaviorsof the system are as designed andspecified.

B)Verifying whetherthe functionalandnon-functlonalbehaviorsof the interfaces are as designed.

C)Verifying whetherthe functionalandnon-functionalbehaviorsof the components are as designedand specified.

D)Establishing confidence in the quality of the systemas a whole.

Test Level:

1.Component testing.

2.Integration testing.

3.System testing.

4.Acceptance testing.

A.

A3, B2.C4. D1

B.

A2, B3, Cl, D4

C.

A3.B2. C1. D4

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Question # 26

You are testing an e-commerce system that sporadically fails to properly manage customers' shopping carts. You have stressed the urgency of this situation to the development manager and development team and they recognize the priority of resolving the underlying defect. The development team is waiting for more information, which you will include in your defect report. Given the following items of information they are included in a typical defect report:

1. The expected results

2. The actual results

3. The urgency and priority to fix this

4. The date and author of the defect report

5. A description of the defect in order to reproduce, including screenshots and database dumps

Which of these items will be MOST useful to the developers to help them identify and remove the defect causing this failure?

A.

1, 2, 5

B.

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

C.

1, 2, 4

D.

3, 4

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Question # 27

Which of the statements correctly describes when a whole team approach may NOT be suitable?

A.

When a high level of test independence may be required.

B.

When acceptance tests need to be created.

C.

When a test automation approach needs to be determined.

D.

When the team dynamics need to be improved.

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Question # 28

Which ONE of the following elements is TYPICALLY used to guide testing duringexploratory testing?

A.

A test charter that defines the testing objectives for the test session.

B.

A comprehensive specification that must be fully available before testing begins.

C.

A detailed test script that prescribes all the steps to be performed.

D.

A predefined test case that must be executed exactly as documented.

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Question # 29

A new web app aims at offering a rich user experience. As a functional tester, you have run some functional tests to verify that, before releasing the app, such app works correctly on several mobile devices, all of which are listed as supported devices within the requirements specification. These tests were performed on stable and isolated test environments where you were the only user interacting with the application. All tests passed, but in some of those tests you observed the following issue: on some mobile devices only, the response time for two web pages containing images was extremely slow.

Based only on the given information, which of the following recommendation would you follow?

A.

You should open a defect report providing detailed information on which devices and by running which tests you observed the issue

B.

The issue is related to performance efficiency, not functionality. Thus, as a functional tester, you should not open any defect report as all the functional tests passed

C.

You should not open any defect report as the problem is most likely due to poor hardware equipment on the devices where you observed the issue

D.

You should not open any defect report and inform the test manager that the devices on which you observed the issue should no longer be supported so that they will be removed from the requirements specification

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Question # 30

Which of the following isNOTa product risk?

A.

Poor software usability

B.

Failure-prone software is delivered

C.

Problems in defining the right requirements

D.

Software does not perform the intended functions

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Question # 31

As a tester, as part of a V-model project, you are currently executing some tests aimed at verifying if a mobile app asks the user to grant the proper access permissions during the installation process and after the installation process. The requirements specification states that in both cases the app shall ask the user to grant access permissions only to the camera and photos stored on the device. However, you observe that the app also asks the user to grant access permission to all contacts on the device. Consider the following items:

[I]. Test environment

[ii]. Expected result

[iii]. Actual result.

[IV] Test level.

[V]. Root cause.

Based on only the given information, which of the items listed above, are you able to CORRECTLY specify in a defect report?

A.

[l] and [IV]

B.

[ii] and [III].

C.

[ii], [iii] and [v]

D.

[ii], [IV] and [V].

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Question # 32

Which ONE of the following statements about maintenance testing is CORRECT?

A.

Maintenance testing is performed exclusively for adaptive maintenance.

B.

Maintenance testing is only required when defects are reported in production.

C.

Maintenance testing should be performed when enhancements, fixes, or updates are applied to an existing system.

D.

Maintenance testing does not require test cases since it focuses solely on defect verification.

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Question # 33

During component testing of a program if 100% decision coverage is achieved, which of the following coverage criteria is also guaranteed to be 100%?

A.

100% Stale transition coverage

B.

100% Equivalence class coverage

C.

100% Boundary value coverage

D.

100% Statement coverage

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Question # 34

A state transition diagram describes a control system’s behavior in different operational modes. The initial state is“NORMAL MODE”.

Which ONE of the following test cases covers anINVALID sequence?

A.

NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → DEGRADED MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE

B.

NORMAL MODE → DEGRADED MODE → NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → DEGRADED MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE

C.

NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → DEGRADED MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE → DEGRADED MODE

D.

NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE

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Question # 35

Which of the following would be LEAST appropriate as part of an incident report covering the observation of a failure during testing?

A.

SOL injection into the username entry field allowed a variety of SQL commands to be executed by the application without the appropriate authority.

B.

The user interface was complicated and confusing and I found It quite difficult to follow

the test script.

C.

The updates made as part of the add new member' function did not reflect the expected change as the name was written into the address field.

D.

The expected result for the ‘list friends' response time was less than 10 seconds, whereas the average response time obtained was 13 seconds.

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Question # 36

Whichofthe following options cover the test types performed during typical system testing phase:

I. Usability

II Requirements based scenarios

III Testing parts of the code in isolation

IV Correct order of parameters in API calls

A.

I, Ill

B.

I. II

C.

II. IV

D.

III.IV

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Question # 37

What type of testing measures its effectiveness by tracking which lines of code were executed by the tests?

A.

Acceptance testing

B.

Structural testing

C.

Integration testing

D.

Exploratory testing

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Question # 38

Which ONE of the following options explains a benefit of independent testing the BEST?

A.

The testers can be isolated from the development team and thus avoid acquiring the same bias as the developers.

B.

Independent testers may lack information regarding the test object.

C.

Independent testers are likely to recognize different types of failures compared to developers.

D.

Developers may lose a sense of responsibility for the quality of the product they develop.

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Question # 39

Which of the following BEST describes exploratory testing?

A.

Exploratory testing is a suitable test technique which may replace both black-box and white-box test techniques

B.

Exploratory testing is a valid and useful black-box test technique since it focuses on test cases related to the architecture and design of a system

C.

Exploratory testing requires both solid specifications and much project time available for test execution

D.

Exploratory testing may be used within defined time periods, during which the tester may follow a test charter as a guide

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Question # 40

Which of the following statements is the BEST example of non-functional testing?

A.

Tests which capture the time it takes to save a file

B.

Tests which calculate overtime pay for those employees entitled to such

C.

Tests related to "what" the system should do

D.

Tests based on the internal structure of a component or system

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Question # 41

In which of the following cases you wouldNOTexecute maintenance testing?

A.

Retirement of the software or system

B.

Modifications to a released software or system

C.

Migration of the system data to a replacement system

D.

Update to the Maintainability requirements during the development phase

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Question # 42

Use Scenario 1 “Happy Tomatoes” (from the previous question).

When running test caseTC_59, the actual result fort = 35degrees Celsius isOUTPUT = Xinstead of the expected output.

Which information should NOT be included in the defect report?

A.

Identification of the test object and test environment

B.

A concise title and a short summary of the defect being reported

C.

Description of the structure of the test team

D.

Expected results and actual results

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Question # 43

Which of the following activities does NOT belong to a typical technical review?

A.

Pre-meeting preparation by reviewers

B.

Using checklists during the meeting

C.

Inviting end-users to the meeting

D.

Preparation of a review report

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Question # 44

When should component integration tests be carried out?

A.

Integration tests should always be done after system tests

B.

Integration tests should be done at the customer's site, after acceptance tests

C.

Integration tests can be done before or after system tests

D.

Integration tests should always be done before system tests

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Question # 45

Which of the following statements about exploratory testing is true?

A.

Exploratory testing is an experience-based test technique in which testers explore the requirements specification to detect non testable requirements

B.

When exploratory testing is conducted following a session-based approach, the issues detected by the testers can be documented in session sheets

C.

Exploratory testing is an experience-based test technique used by testers during informal code reviews to find defects by exploring the source code

D.

In exploratory testing, testers usually produce scripted tests and establish bidirectional traceability between these tests and the items of the test basis

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Question # 46

The whole-team approach:

A.

promotes the idea that all team members should have a thorough understanding of test techniques

B.

is a consensus-based approach that engages the whole team in estimating the user stories

C.

promotes the idea that all team members should be responsible for the quality of the product

D.

is mostly adopted in projects aimed at developing safety-critical systems, as it ensures the highest level of testing independence

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Question # 47

Which of the following characterizations applies to a test tool used for the analysis of a developer's code prior to its execution?

A.

Tool support for test design and implementation.

B.

Tool support for static testing.

C.

Tool support for test execution and logging.

D.

Tool support for performance measurement and dynamic analysis.

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Question # 48

Scenario 1 “Happy Tomatoes” (used for questions 20-22):

An intelligent application for agricultural use incorporates temperature sensors located at different points of an enclosure. The sensors measure and record the temperature at regular intervals and extract the statistical values for these measurements. These values include the average daily temperature.

A new variety of tomatoes is currently being grown and the“World Organization for Happy Tomatoes”has established temperature ranges related to vegetative development.

When the system establishes that the average temperature is within a specific range, it emits a value that will be used to monitor and control the crop.

Using theequivalence partitioningtechnique, identify the set of input values that provides the HIGHEST coverage.

A.

{7,10,21,40}

B.

{8,10,25,40}

C.

{7,10,25,29}

D.

{7,10,25,40}

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Question # 49

Which of the following statements BEST describes how test cases are derived from a use case?

A.

Test cases are derived based on non-functional requirements such as usability

B.

Test cases are created using white-box test techniques to execute scenarios of use cases

C.

Test cases are derived based on pair testing between a user and a tester to find defects

D.

Test cases are designed to cover various user behaviors, including basic, exceptional or alternative and error behaviors associated with human users or systems

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Question # 50

In maintenance testing, what is the relationship between impact analysis and regression testing?

A.

Impact analysis requires a regression testing for only the tests that have detected faults in previous SW release

B.

There is no relationship between impact analysis and regression testing.

C.

Impact analysis requires a regression testing for all program elements which were newly integrated (new functionalities).

D.

The impact analysis is used to evaluate the amount of regression testing to be performed.

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Question # 51

Which ONE of the following options corresponds to an activity in the testing process in which testable features are identified?

A.

Test design

B.

Test analysis

C.

Test implementation

D.

Test execution

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Question # 52

Which test approach will best fit a new project, with little documentation and high probability for bugs?

A.

Exploratory testing

B.

Requirements based testing

C.

Metric based approach

D.

Regression testing

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Question # 53

Which of the following is the BEST reason for selecting a particular type of software development lifecycle model?

A.

The project manager's preference

B.

Tester skill level with the software development lifecycle model

C.

The project team's overall familiarity with the model

D.

The type of product being developed

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Question # 54

For each test case to be executed, the following table specifies its dependencies and the required configuration of the test environment for running such test case:

Assume that C0NF1 is the initial configuration of the test environment Based on this assumption, which of the following is a test execution schedule that is compatible with the specified dependencies and allows minimising the number of switches between the different configurations of the test environment^

A.

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC1, TC5.

B.

TCI, TC5, TC4, TC3, TC2

C.

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC5, TC1.

D.

TC4, TC1, TC5, TC2, TC3

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Question # 55

A program got 100% decision coverage in a test. Which of the following statements is then guaranteed to betrue?

A.

Every executable statement Is covered.

B.

Every output equivalence class has been tested.

C.

Every input equivalence class has been tested.

D.

The "dead" code has not been covered.

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Question # 56

Which ONE ofthe following options is NOT a test objective?

A.

Verifying whether specified requirements have been fulfilled

B.

Triggering failures and finding defects

C.

Finding errors

D.

Validating whether the test object is complete and works as expected by the stakeholders

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Question # 57

Consider the following statements (I to V) about software testing:

I. Can be applied to non-executable work products.

II. Can be used to measure performance efficiency.

III. Can lead to the detection of defects.

IV. Can find defects directly.

V. Can identify unexpected behaviors caused by potential defects.

Which ONE of the following options is the list that characterizes static tests the BEST?

A.

Statements I, III, and IV

B.

Statements II, IV, and V

C.

Statements I, II, and IV

D.

Statements II, III, and V

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Question # 58

Which of the following is the most important task of a typical test leader?

A.

To automate tests.

B.

To prepare and acquire test data.

C.

To set up the test environment.

D.

To coordinate the test strategy with project managers.

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Question # 59

A software calculates the annual car tax using three inputs:

- E; the emission level of the vehicle

- P: the power of the vehicle

-T the type of the vehicle

The input value for P can be integer positive values between 15 and 350.

Which of the following answers contains a correct list of a boundary values for the P input?

A.

14,351

B.

14,15,350,351

C.

15,350

D.

5.175.500

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Question # 60

The fact that defects are usually not evenly distributed among the various modules that make up a software application, but rather their distribution tend to reflect the Pareto principle:

A.

is a false myth

B.

is expressed by the testing principle referred to as Tests wear out'

C.

is expressed by the testing principle referred to as 'Defects cluster together'

D.

is expressed by the testing principle referred to as 'Bug prediction'

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Question # 61

Which of the following applications will be the MOST suitable for testing by Use Cases

A.

Accuracy and usability of a new Navigation system compared with previous system

B.

A billing system used to calculate monthly charge based or large number of subscribers parameters

C.

The ability of an Anti virus package to detect and quarantine a new threat

D.

Suitability and performance of a Multi media (audio video based) system to a new operating system

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Question # 62

Which of the following sentences describe a product risk?

A.

The application might not be able to provide the expected responsiveness under a load of up-lo 300 concurrent users

B.

Failure in acquiring an adequate and test automation tool

C.

A wrong configuration of the test environment that causes incidents related to the environment and not to the software under test

D.

The development team lacks knowledge of the technology on which the product is based

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Question # 63

A class grade application for instructors assigns letter grades based on students' numerical grades.

The letter grades for different numerical grades should be:

Above 89, up to 100 - A

Above 79, up to 89 • B

Above 69, up to 79 • C

Above 59, up to 69 - D

Below 60- F

Which of the following sets of test inputs would achieve the relatively highest equivalence partition coverage?

A.

0, 58.59,70, 80

B.

74, 79.84,85, 89

C.

79, 89.90,99, 100

D.

69, 79. 80, 89, 90

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Question # 64

The following sentences refer to the 'Standard for Software Test Documentation' specification (IEEE 829).

Which sentence is correct?

A.

Any deviation from this standard should be approved by management, marketing & development

B.

Most test documentation regimes follow this spec to some degree, with changes done to fit a specific situation or organization

C.

The key to high quality test documentation regimes is strict adherence to this standard

D.

This test plan outline is relevant for military projects. For consumer market projects there is a different specification with fewer items.

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Question # 65

A requirement specifies that if the total amount of sales (TAS) made during the year by a corporate seller is 300,000€ or more, the bonus that must be paid to the seller is 100% of a certain amount agreed upon at the beginning of the year. The software contains a fault as it implements this requirement with the decision "IF (TAS = 300,000)" instead of "IF (TAS >= 300.000)". The application of the 3-value boundary value analysis to this problem consists of the following three test cases (TAS is an integer variable):

TC1 = 299,999 TC2=300,000 TC=300,001

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A.

TC1 would highlight the fault

B.

TC2 would highlight the fault

C.

TC3 would highlight the fault

D.

None of the three test cases would highlight the fault.

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Question # 66

Which are the MAIN goals of risk management in a software project?

A.

To increase the success probability for the project regardless of costs.

B.

To increase focus on preventative processes and to increase satisfaction for the testers.

C.

To control contractual problems and minimize the impacts of company policies.

D.

To reduce the probability of undesired situations and to reduce the effect of potential impact.

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Question # 67

You are an experienced tester on a project with incomplete requirements and under pressure to deploy.

What type of testing should you do?

A.

Decision-based testing.

B.

Checklist-based testing.

C.

Error guessing.

D.

Exploratory testing.

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Question # 68

The acceptance criteria associated with a user story:

A.

are often written in a rule-oriented format using the template referred to as "Given/When/Then"

B.

are often documented following in rule-oriented format using the following template: "As a [role], I want [feature], so that I can [benefit]"

C.

can be written in different formats and represent an aspect of a user story referred to as confirmation' of the so called "3 C's"

D.

must be written in one of the two following formats: scenario-oriented or rule-oriented

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Question # 69

Which of the following is a task the Author is responsible for, as part of a typical formal review?

A.

Determining the people who will be involved in the review

B.

Recording the anomalies found during the review meeting

C.

Identifying potential anomalies in the work product under review

D.

Fixing the anomalies found in the work product under review

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Question # 70

An alphanumeric password must be between 4 and 7 characters long and must contain at least one numeric character, one capital (uppercase) letter and one lowercase letter of the alphabet.

Which one of the following sets of test cases represents the correct outcome of a two-value boundary value analysis applied to the password length? (Note: test cases are separated by a semicolon)

A.

1xA;aB11;Pq1ZZab;7iDD0a1x

B.

aB11;99rSp:5NnN10;7iDD0a1x

C.

1xB: aB11: 99rSp: 5NnN10; 4NnN10T; 44ghWn19

D.

1RhT;rSp53;3N3e10;8sBdby

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Question # 71

Which review type, also known as a “buddy check”, is commonly used in Agile development?

A.

Inspection.

B.

Walkthrough.

C.

Technical review.

D.

Informal review.

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Question # 72

Which ONE of the following elements is TYPICALLY part of atest plan?

A.

The budget and schedule for the test project.

B.

A detailed analysis of the defects found and their causes.

C.

A detailed report on the test results after the test project is completed.

D.

A list of test logs from the test execution.

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Question # 73

Which of the following CORRECTLY matches the roles and responsibilities in a formal review?

A.

Facilitator - Fixes defects in the work product under review

B.

Scribe - Collates potential defects found during the individual review activity

C.

Review Leader - Creates the work product under review

D.

Author - Identify potential defects in the work product under review

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Question # 74

A software system checks age in order to determine which welcome screen to display. Age groups are:

Group I: 0-12

Group II; 13-18

Group III: over 18

Which of the below represent boundary values?

A.

(-1.0.12.13.18,19)

B.

(-1.0,11.12.13,14,18.19)

C.

(0.12.13.18.19)

D.

(4.5.15.20)

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Question # 75

Consider the following list of activities (I to V):

I. Test design

II. Test planning

III. Review test basis

IV. Be a facilitator of a peer review

V. Test monitoring and control

Which ONE of the following options identifies the activities that the test management role is MAINLY focused on?

A.

Activities III, IV, and V

B.

Activities II and V

C.

Activities I and V

D.

Activities I, III, and IV

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Question # 76

The following incident report that was generated during test of a web application.

What would you suggest asthe most importantreport improvement?

Defect detected date: 15 8.2010

Defect detected by: Joe Smith

Test level System test

Test case: Area 5/TC 98

Build version: 2011-16.2

Defect description After having filled out all required fields in screen 1, t click ENTER to continue to screen2Nothing happens, no system response at all.

A.

Add information about which web browser was used

B.

Add information about which developer should fix the bug

C.

Add the time stamp when the incident happened

D.

Add an impact analysis

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Question # 77

The following state transition diagram describes the functionality involved in a system using fingerprint and password authentication to log onto a system.

How many distinct states of the system are visible in the above diagram?

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

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Question # 78

A software company decides to invest in reviews of various types. The thought process they have is that each artifact needs to be reviewed using only one of the review methods depending on the criticality of the artifact.

A.

The thought process is incorrect. The whole company should adopt same standard for review of all artifacts.

B.

The thought process is correct. The whole company should decide or the review method based on their CMM level.

C.

The thought process is incorrect. Same artifact can be reviewed using different review methods

D.

The thought process is correct. It wastes time to review same artifact using efferent review methods

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Question # 79

Test automation allows you to:

A.

demonstrate the absence of defects

B.

produce tests that are less subject to human errors

C.

avoid performing exploratory testing

D.

increase test process efficiency by facilitating management of defects

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Question # 80

The following requirement is given “Set X to be the sum of Y and Z”.

All the following four implementations have bugs.

Which one of the following bugs can be caught by Static Analysis?

A.

int x = 1.

int y = 2.

int y = 3.

X = y=z;

B.

int x = 1.

int y = 2.

int z = 3.

X = z-y

C.

int x = 1.

Int y = 2.

Int z = 3.

Z = x +y

D.

int y = 2

Int z = 3.

Y = z+y

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Question # 81

Which of the following statements about static analysis are FALSE?

I. Static analysis can be used Instead of dynamic testing.

II. Stalk: analysis can uncover defects like security vulnerabilities.

III. Static analysis can be used to check conformance to specifications and standards.

IV Static analysis typically detects failures prior to component testing.

A.

I. II

B.

II. Ill

C.

III. IV

D.

I, IV

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Question # 82

Your manager asked you when testing will be complete. In order to answer this question, you'll most likely use:

A.

Test progress reports

B.

Your colleagues advice

C.

A conversion spreadsheet

D.

A Test Oracle

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Question # 83

A Test Manager conducts risk assessment for a project. One of the identified risks is: The sub-contractor may fail to meet his commitment". If this risk materializes. it will lead to delay in completion of testing required for the current cycle.

Which of the following sentences correctly describes the risk?

A.

It is a product risk since any risk associated with development timeline is a product risk.

B.

It is no longer a risk for the Test Manager since an independent party (the sub-contractor) is now managing it

C.

It is a object risk since successful completion of the object depends on successful and timely completion of the tests

D.

It is a product risk since default on part of the sub-contractor may lead to delay in release of the product

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Question # 84

Which ONE of the following statements about acceptance testing isNOTcorrect?

A.

Testing of disaster recovery and backup/restore is usually NOT part of acceptance testing.

B.

The customers or system users are often responsible for the acceptance testing.

C.

The main goal of acceptance testing is to build confidence in the system, not find defects.

D.

Acceptance testing is the last level of testing performed prior to system release.

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Question # 85

Which of the following issues cannot be identified by static analysis tools?

A.

Very low MTBF (Mean Time Between failure)

B.

Potentially endless loops

C.

Referencing a variable with an undefined value

D.

Security vulnerabilities

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Question # 86

A software module to be used in a mission critical application incorporates an algorithm for secure transmission of data.

Which review type is most appropriate to ensure high quality and technical correctness of the algorithm?

A.

Walkthrough

B.

Informal Review

C.

Technical Review

D.

Management Review

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Question # 87

Consider the following list of possible benefits of retrospectives (A to D):

A.

Team bonding and learning

B.

Increased test effectiveness/efficiency

C.

Improved quality of the test basis

D.

Better cooperation between development and testing

... and the list of possible characteristics of retrospectives (1 to 4) that enable achieving these benefits:

The possibility of implementing suggestions for process improvement

The opportunity to raise problems and propose points for improvement

The regular review and optimization of the collaboration between team members

The possibility of addressing and solv

E.

A1 - B4 - C3 - D2

F.

A2 - B1 - C4 - D3

G.

A4 - B3 - C2 - D1

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Question # 88

Which one of the following statements IS NOT a valid objective of testing?

A.

To build confidence in the level of quality of the test object.

B.

To find all defects in a product, ensuring the product is defect free.

C.

To find failures and defects

D.

To evaluate work products such as requirements, user stories, design, and code.

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Question # 89

Which of the following statements about static testing and dynamic testing is TRUE?

A.

Static testing is better suited than dynamic testing for highlighting issues that could indicate inappropriate code modulansation.

B.

Dynamic testing can only be applied to executable work products, while static testing can only be applied to non-executable work products.

C.

Both dynamic testing and static testing cause failures, but failures caused by static testing are usually easier and cheaper to analyse.

D.

Security vulnerabilities can only be detected when the software is being executed, and thus they can only be detected through dynamic testing, not through static testing

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Question # 90

Which of the following statements is true?

A.

Experience-based test techniques rely on the experience of testers to identify the root causes of defects found by black-box test techniques

B.

Some of the most common test basis used by white-box test techniques include user stories, use cases and business processes

C.

Experience-based test techniques are often useful to detect hidden defects that have not been targeted by black-box test techniques

D.

The primary goal of experience-based test techniques is to design test cases that can be easily automated using a GUI-based test automation tool

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Question # 91

Which ONE of the following options BEST describes thethird test quadrant (Q3)?

A.

This test quadrant contains smoke tests and non-functional tests (except usability tests). These tests are often automated.

B.

This test quadrant is business-facing and criticizes the system. It contains exploratory testing, usability testing, and user acceptance testing.

C.

This test quadrant contains functional tests, examples, user story tests, user experience prototypes, API testing, and simulations. These tests check the acceptance criteria and can be manual or automated.

D.

This test quadrant is technology-facing and supports the team. These tests should be automated and included in the continuous integration (CI) process.

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Question # 92

For withdrawing money tram an Automated Teller Machine (ATM), the following conditions are required:

- The bank card is valid

- The PIN code is correct

- Money is available in the user's account

The following are some possible interactions between the user and the ATM:

- The entered card is invalid The card is rejected

- The PIN code is wrong The ATM asks for another PIN code

- The requested amount is more than available in the user's account: The ATM asks for another amount

- The requested amount is available in the user's account The ATM dispenses the money

Which test design technique should be used to cover all possible combinations of the in put conditions?

A.

Use case based testing

B.

Decision table

C.

Boundary value analysis

D.

Equivalence class partitioning

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Question # 93

Which of the following statements is not correct?

A.

Looking for defects in a system may require Ignoring system details

B.

Identifying defects may be perceived as criticism against product

C.

Looking for defects in system requires professional pessimism and curiosity

D.

Testing is often seen as a destructive activity instead of constructive activity

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Question # 94

Confirmation testing is performed after:

A.

a defect is fixed and after other tests do not find any side-effect introduced in the software as a result of such fix

B.

a failed test, and aims to run that test again to confirm that the same behavior still occurs and thus appears to be reproducible

C.

the execution of an automated regression test suite to confirm the absence of false positives in the test results

D.

a defect is fixed, and if such testing is successful then the regression tests that are relevant for such fix can be executed

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Question # 95

What is test oracle?

A.

The source of lest objectives

B.

The source for the actual results

C.

The source of expected results

D.

The source of input conditions

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Question # 96

Which ONE of the following statements about state transition testing is correct?

A.

The state transition diagram explicitly shows all invalid transitions.

B.

The size of the state table depends on the number of possible transitions between the states

C.

Usually it is not possible to create tests to cover ell transitions and all stales

D.

All transitions between states are explicitly shown in the state table.

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Question # 97

Which of the following statements about test reports are TRUE?

I Test reports shall be approved by the test team.

II. Test reports shall give stakeholders information as basis for decisions.

Ill Test reports shall summarize what happened through a period of testing.

IV. Test reports shall be approved by the development team, the test team and the customer

V. Test reports shall include information about remaining risks.

A.

II, III, V

B.

I, II, IV

C.

I, III, v

D.

II, III, IV

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Question # 98

Which of the following statements about testing in the context of an agile (iterative-incremental) development model is correct?

A.

Unit test and acceptance test ate the most important tests to make sure that the system works as expected.

B.

Each iteration of testing has to be completely finished before a new Iteration of development starts.

C.

Regression testing is necessary whenever a new Increment Is added to the existing system. D. Only certain types of non-functional and explorative testing are performed.

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