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ISEB-PM1 Questions and Answers

Question # 6

Which of the following events would result in a baseline update?

A.

Your project is behind schedule and you want your baseline to reflect estimated actual completion.

B.

Your customer has approved a change request broadening the project scope and increasing the budget.

C.

One of the risks identified in the Risk Management Plan occurs resulting in a schedule delay.

D.

One of your key project team resources has left your team and no replacement is available.

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Question # 7

In which of the following organizational structures does the project manager have full authority on a project?

A.

Functional

B.

Strong matrix

C.

Balanced matrix

D.

Projectized

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Question # 8

A project manager is creating a risk response plan. However, every time a risk response is suggested, another risk is identified that is caused by the response.

Which of the following is the BEST thing for the project manager to do?

A.

Document the new risks and continue the Plan Risk Responses process.

B.

Make sure the project work is better understood.

C.

Spend more time making sure the risk responses are clearly defined.

D.

Get more people involved in the Identify Risks process since risks have been missed.

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Question # 9

Which of the following statements is true regarding schedule variances?

A.

Schedule variances never impact the schedule.

B.

Schedule variances sometimes impact the schedule.

C.

Schedule variances impact scope, which impacts the schedule.

D.

Schedule variances always impact the schedule.

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Question # 10

A project manager discovers that two team members discussed what was needed to complete a work package on the project and made many changes to the project scope. The work package is now completed and the team members are planning to go on to the next work package. In looking at what was done, the project manager determines that the work does NOT meet the requirements of the project.

What is the BEST course of action for the project manager?

A.

Add another work package, formatted with the correct scope, to the project.

B.

Refuse the submittal of the work package.

C.

Have the team begin the work package again and include the incident in their performance reviews.

D.

Ask the team member's manager to assign different people to the work package.

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Question # 11

Your company has just presented its new five-year strategic plan. You have received a new product request from a customer that is in line with the previous five-year strategic plan, but it does not meet the objectives of the new plan. The product description seems to have a valid business driver and to be a straightforward development effort.

As project manager, what is the BEST course of action?

A.

Do a benefit cost analysis of the project and submit it for management approval.

B.

Submit the new product request to the PMO for review and approval before proceeding.

C.

Inform the customer of the change in corporate direction and ask him/her to take another look at the project.

D.

Request a project charter from management and begin a WBS.

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Question # 12

Projects can be divided into phases to provide better management control. Collectively, what are these phases known as?

A.

Complete project phase

B.

Project life

C.

The project life cycle

D.

Project cycle

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Question # 13

Perform quality assurance belongs to which of the following process groups?

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Monitoring and Control

D.

Closing

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Question # 14

A clear definition of the user's needs serves as the direct basis for the:

A.

Selection of personnel.

B.

Termination decision.

C.

Work breakdown structure.

D.

Functional requirements.

E.

Project cost estimate.

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Question # 15

The estimated cost to complete (ETC) is _____.

A.

BCWP/ACWP

B.

the forecasted and final cost - cost to date

C.

None of the other alternatives apply

D.

Total estimate - ACWP

E.

(ACWP-BCWP)/BCWP * 100

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Question # 16

A new project manager is having difficulty creating a WBS with the team. To alleviate this situation, the project manager should ask for help from:

A.

The sponsor.

B.

Other project managers.

C.

The project management office.

D.

The team.

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Question # 17

What is the expected activity cost for a project having a most likely cost of $140, a best case scenario of $115, and a worst case scenario of $165?

A.

$115

B.

$138

C.

$140

D.

$165

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Question # 18

You are a project manager for an engineering company. Your company won the bid to add ramp-metering lights to several on-ramps along a stretch of highway at the south end of the city. You subcontracted a portion of the project to another company. The subcontractor's work involves digging the holes and setting the lamp poles in concrete. The subcontractor's performance is not meeting the contract requirements.

Which of the following is not a valid option?

A.

You document the poor performance in written form and send the correspondence to the subcontractor.

B.

You terminate the contract for poor performance and submit a change request through Contract Administration.

C.

You agree to meet with the subcontractor to see whether a satisfactory solution can be reached.

D.

You submit a change request through Contract Administration demanding that the subcontractor comply with the terms of the contract.

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Question # 19

Linear programming is an example of what type of project selection criteria?

A.

Constrained optimization

B.

Comparative approach

C.

Benefit measurement

D.

Impact analysis

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Question # 20

You are a project manager for Giraffe Enterprises. You've recently taken over for a project manager who lied about his PMI certification and was subsequently fired. Unfortunately, he did a poor job of scope definition.

Which of the following could happen if you don't correct this?

A.

The project costs could increase, there might be rework, and schedule delays might result.

B.

The project management plan's process for verification and acceptance of the deliverables needs to be updated as a result of the poor scope definition.

C.

The poor scope definition will adversely affect the creation of the work breakdown structure, and costs will increase.

D.

The stakeholders will require overtime from the project team to keep the project on schedule.

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Question # 21

Which tool and technique uses a statistical relationship between historical data and other variables to calculate estimates?

A.

Analogous estimating

B.

Three-point estimates

C.

Parametric estimating

D.

Bottom-up estimating

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Question # 22

The customer's expectations for quality are shown on a control chart as the:

A.

Mean.

B.

Specification limits.

C.

Rule of seven.

D.

Upper and lower control limits.

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Question # 23

What is the function of a Project Management Office (PMO)?

A.

To focus on the coordinated planning, prioritization, and execution of projects and subprojects that are tied to the parent organizations' or the client's overall business objectives.

B.

To coordinate and manage the procurement of projects relevant to the parent organization's business objectives and to administer the project charters accordingly.

C.

To administer performance reviews for the project manager and the project team members and to handle any personnel and payroll issues.

D.

To focus on the specified project objectives and to manage the scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the work packages.

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Question # 24

The project team reviews identified risks and the risk response strategy. For one of the risks, the team realizes that the implementation of the risk response would generate another risk.

This new risk is which of the following types of risk?

A.

Secondary

B.

Primary

C.

Residual

D.

Tertiary

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Question # 25

While creating the agenda for a status meeting with the team, a project manager receives input from one team member that an item should be added. Another team member says the team is not ready to resolve the item during the meeting. After much discussion, the project manager decides to put the item on the agenda as an initial discussion item only.

Which conflict resolution technique is the project manager using?

A.

Compromise

B.

Smoothing

C.

Forcing

D.

Withdrawal

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Question # 26

Bar charts are most appropriate for:

A.

Showing slack time.

B.

Comparing actual to planned performance to each activity.

C.

All of the other alternatives apply.

D.

Showing critical path dependencies.

E.

Showing which activities can be rearranged in parallel.

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Question # 27

An employee approaches you and asks to tell you something in confidence. He advises you that he has been performing illegal activities within the company for the last year. He is feeling guilty about it and is telling you in order to receive advice as to what he should do.

What should you do?

A.

Ask for full details.

B.

Confirm that the activity is really illegal.

C.

Inform your manager of the illegal activity.

D.

Tell the employee to inform his boss.

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Question # 28

How is the process of collecting requirements defined?

A.

Defining and documenting project sponsors' needs to meet the project objectives

B.

Defining and documenting stakeholders' needs to meet the project objectives

C.

Defining and documenting the project teams' needs to meet the project objectives

D.

Defining and documenting the project needs to meet the project objectives

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Question # 29

Which of the following is CORRECT about quality improvements?

A.

They are a tool of Perform Quality Assurance and an output of Verify Scope.

B.

They require the preparation of change requests or the recommendation of corrective actions.

C.

They occur only through experience of the project manager, team, and sponsor.

D.

They are a product of cooperation between the customer and the project manager.

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Question # 30

Which process group typically consumes the bulk of a project's budget?

A.

Monitoring & Controlling

B.

Executing

C.

Planning

D.

Initiating

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Question # 31

The inputs of the Performance Reporting process include all of the following except for which one?

A.

Performance reviews

B.

Work performance information

C.

Forecasted completion

D.

Performance measurements

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Question # 32

Which of the following is TRUE about most project life cycles?

A.

Staffing level is highest at the start.

B.

The stakeholders' influence is highest at the start.

C.

The level of uncertainty is lowest at the start.

D.

The cost of changes is highest at the start.

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Question # 33

The positive value of conflict is underestimated. Properly managed, conflict is a valuable tool, particularly when __________.

A.

A diversion is needed

B.

Conflict may cause a loss of status or position power

C.

Conflictive situations are in their early stages and emotional involvement is low

D.

Conflictive situations are in their late stages and emotional involvement is high

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Question # 34

What is one of the most important skills a project manager can have?

A.

Negotiation skills

B.

Communication skills

C.

Influencing skills

D.

Problem-solving skills

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Question # 35

If the Schedule Variance (SV) =$55, and the Planned Value (PV) =$11, what is the Earned Value (EV)?

A.

$0.2

B.

$5

C.

$44

D.

$66

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Question # 36

What component of the project scope definition defines project exclusions?

A.

Project boundaries

B.

Project constraints

C.

Project assumptions

D.

Project objectives

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Question # 37

Which of the following is an input to Develop Human Resource Plan?

A.

Team performance assessment

B.

Roles and responsibilities

C.

Staffing management plan

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

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Question # 38

A non-critical path activity is completed in half the time. Then, ___________.

A.

All of the other alternatives apply.

B.

The slack in the path containing this activity will increase.

C.

The total cost for this activity has decreased.

D.

The critical path is also reduced.

E.

Manpower from this activity can be assigned to other activities.

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Question # 39

The critical path in a schedule network is the path that:

A.

Takes the longest time to complete

B.

Allows some flexibility in scheduling a start time.

C.

Is not affected by schedule slippage

D.

Must be done before any other tasks

E.

All of the other alternatives apply.

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Question # 40

What process determines which risks might affect the project?

A.

Qualitative risk analysis

B.

Identify Risks

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Quantitative risk analysis

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Question # 41

In which of the following contract types does the buyer have the most cost risk?

A.

Cost plus percentage of costs (CPPC)

B.

Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF)

C.

Cost plus award fee (CPAF)

D.

Cost plus incentive fee (CPIF)

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Question # 42

Which of the following are outputs of the Monitor and Control Project Work process?

A.

Requested changes, forecasts, recommended corrective actions

B.

Forecasts, resources plan, bottom up estimating

C.

Recommended corrective actions, cost baseline, forecasts

D.

Requested changes, recommended corrective actions, project constraints

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Question # 43

The project manager calculated a schedule performance index of 0.8 and a cost performance index of 1.1 for the project. What is the actual status of this project?

A.

Behind schedule and over budget

B.

Behind schedule and under budget

C.

Ahead of schedule and under budget

D.

Ahead of schedule and over budget

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Question # 44

Which estimating technique uses the actual costs of previous similar projects as a basis for estimating the costs of the current project?

A.

Analogous

B.

Parametric

C.

Bottom-up

D.

Top-down

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Question # 45

Parametric cost estimating involves _____________.

A.

using a statistical model to estimate costs

B.

calculating the individual estimates of work packages

C.

defining the perimeters of the life-cycle

D.

using the WBS to do bottom up estimates

E.

Both 1) using the WBS to do bottom up estimate, and 2) calculating the individual estimates of work packages

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Question # 46

Executing the risk response plan in order to react to risk events throughout the project is called:

A.

Contingency planning.

B.

Monitoring and control.

C.

Mitigation.

D.

Life cycle costing.

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Question # 47

The project charter is developed by:

A.

the customer

B.

senior management and the project manager

C.

senior management

D.

None of the other alternatives apply

E.

the project manager

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Question # 48

Your project team consists of 12 people in the same building you're located in, 4 people from the West Coast office, 2 people from the Kansas City office, and 6 people from the London office. Your office works different hours than all the other offices. Additionally, not all of the resources in your building are available at the same times during the day. Three of the 12 team members work swing shift hours. You use tools like web conferencing and email to distribute information to the team.

Which of the following is true?

A.

This question describes resource availability from the Develop Project Team process and information distribution methods from the Information Distribution process.

B.

This question describes the staffing management plan from the Acquire Project Team process and communication skills from the Information Distribution process.

C.

This question describes project staff assignments from the Develop Project Team process and communication skills from the Information Distribution process.

D.

This question describes virtual teams from the Acquire Project Team process and information distribution methods from the Information Distribution process.

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Question # 49

A project manager is responsible for managing which of the following at the project level?

A.

Methodology

B.

Standards

C.

Constraints

D.

Interdependencies

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Question # 50

Which of the following is an example of a risk symptom?

A.

Failure to meet intermediate milestones

B.

Force of nature, such as a flood

C.

Risk threshold target

D.

Crashing front loading or fast tracking

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Question # 51

Formal written correspondence with the customer is required when:

A.

Defects are detected.

B.

The customer requests additional work not covered under contract.

C.

The project has a schedule slippage that includes changes to the critical path.

D.

The project has cost overruns.

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Question # 52

Project team members begin to address the project work and technical decisions. The project team is in which of the following stages of team development?

A.

Storming

B.

Forming

C.

Norming

D.

Performing

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Question # 53

Which of the following must not performed in the project initiation process?

A.

Evaluate historical information

B.

List down business need

C.

List down stakeholders

D.

Create scope statement

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Question # 54

The risk of accepting a lot of poor quality, in acceptance sampling, is referred to as:

A.

type I error

B.

producer's risk

C.

consumer's risk

D.

buyer's risk

E.

consumer's risk and type I error

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Question # 55

A project has seven activities: A, B, C, D, E, F, and G. Activities A, B, and D can start anytime. Activity A takes 3 weeks, Activity B takes 5 weeks, and Activity D takes 11 weeks. Activities A and B must be completed before Activity C can start. Activity C requires 6 weeks to complete. Activities B, C, and D must be completed before Activity E can start. Activity E requires 2 weeks. Activity F takes 4 weeks and can start as soon as Activity C is completed. Activity E must be completed before Activity G starts. Activity G requires 3 weeks. Activities F and G must be completed for the project to be completed.

Which activities have float available?

A.

Activity A has two weeks’ float, activity F has one week.

B.

Activity F has one-week float.

C.

There is no float available in the project.

D.

Activity A has eight weeks’ float.

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Question # 56

What is the difference between expected monetary value and net present value?

A.

Expected value is the estimated value of the work actually accomplished and net present value is the value of the work to be done.

B.

Expected value is the value it takes to recover your investment and net present value is the value of money.

C.

Expected value is the probability times impact of an opportunity and net present value is the benefits less costs over many time periods.

D.

Expected value is the estimated value of risk response plans and net present value helps determine the value of investments.

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Question # 57

Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without changing project scope.

Which of the following can result from fast tracking?

A.

The risk of achieving the shortened project time is increased.

B.

The critical path will have positive total float.

C.

Contingency reserves are released for redeployment by the project manager.

D.

Duration buffers are added to maintain a focus on planned activity durations.

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Question # 58

Which of the following is one of the key components of the basic communications model?

A.

Push

B.

Decode

C.

Pull

D.

Duration

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Question # 59

Who is responsible for determining which processes from the Process Groups will be employed and who will be performing them?

A.

Project sponsor and project manager

B.

Project sponsor and functional manager

C.

Project manager and project team

D.

Project team and functional manager

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Question # 60

Which of the following risk response strategies involves allocating ownership of a positive risk to a third party?

A.

Mitigate

B.

Transfer

C.

Share

D.

Avoid

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Question # 61

Based on the chart, while completing the project, a team member tells you that the team forgot something during planning. Activity F needs the results of activity E before it can begin.

Taking this new dependency into account, what would be the effect on the project?

A.

It would increase the critical path.

B.

Communication would be more complex.

C.

There would be no effect.

D.

It would delay activity F.

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Question # 62

The ability to achieve cost savings is inversely proportional to _____.

A.

empowerment to the P.M.

B.

productivity

C.

the estimated costs to complete

D.

the earned value achieved to date

E.

None of the other alternatives apply.

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Question # 63

A project manager in a predominantly hierarchical organization has been assigned a major project with aggressive timelines. The BEST approach for developing an initial project charter in this environment is to:

A.

Create a project charter using brainstorming sessions with potential team members and stakeholders

B.

Create and present a draft project charter to potential team members and stakeholders to solicit their input.

C.

Create a project charter jointly with management for distribution to potential team members and stakeholders.

D.

Create a project charter with the functional managers and present it to the sponsor for signature.

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Question # 64

Which of the following is defined by a project's life cycle and varies by application area?

A.

Product

B.

Product-oriented processes

C.

Project management process groups

D.

Project-oriented processes

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Question # 65

While implementing an approved change, a critical defect was introduced. Removing the defect will delay the product delivery.

What is the MOST appropriate approach to managing this situation?

A.

Utilize the change control process.

B.

Crash the schedule to fix the defect.

C.

Leave the defect in and work around it.

D.

Fast-track the remaining development.

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Question # 66

The seller tells you that your activities have resulted in an increase in their costs. You should:

A.

Recommend a change to the project costs.

B.

Have a meeting with management to find out what to do.

C.

Ask the seller for supporting information.

D.

Deny any wrongdoing.

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Question # 67

Which tool or technique measures performance of the project as it moves from project initiation through project closure?

A.

Resource leveling

B.

Parametric measuring

C.

Pareto chart

D.

Earned value

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Question # 68

In an organization with a projectized organizational structure, who controls the project budget?

A.

Functional manager

B.

Project manager

C.

Program manager

D.

Project management office

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Question # 69

What is a hierarchically organized depiction of the identified project risks arranged by risk category?

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk breakdown structure (RBS)

C.

Risk management plan

D.

Risk category

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Question # 70

Which is not an example of formal communication?

A.

Contract

B.

Email

C.

Project status report

D.

Status meeting

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Question # 71

A purchase order for a specified item to be delivered by a specified date for a specified price is the simplest form of what type of contract?

A.

Cost-reimbursable

B.

Time and material

C.

Fixed price or lump-sum

D.

Cost-plus-fixed-fee

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Question # 72

The purpose of configuration management is to:

A.

control change during the production only

B.

control change throughout the project

C.

inform the project manager of changes

D.

generate engineering change proposals

E.

insure drawings are updated

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Question # 73

You are managing an internal project where a vice president from the user group is acting as the sponsor. You have just been informed by your team that the critical path has slipped by three weeks. You should:

A.

See the sponsor after you have evaluated alternatives, recommendations, and performed an impact analysis

B.

Inform your senior management of the problem and tell them that you will get back to them after you assessed the situation

C.

Look for someone to blame before you see the sponsor

D.

Do nothing until the slippage occurs

E.

Immediately inform the sponsor and ask for advice

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Question # 74

Risk event is the description of what may happen to the _____ of the project.

A.

Budget

B.

harm

C.

Schedule

D.

Manager

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Question # 75

For communication to occur, there must be ___________.

A.

All of the other alternatives apply

B.

a communication process

C.

Two or more people involved

D.

the transmittal of information

E.

The transmittal of information and a communication process

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Question # 76

Which of the following describes the purpose of the quality control process?

A.

To identify quality requirements of the project

B.

To identify ineffective processes and eliminate them

C.

To assess performance and recommend necessary changes

D.

To ensure quality standards are used

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Question # 77

Which of the following is one of the tools and techniques for the Define Activities process?

A.

Rolling wave planning

B.

Dependency determination

C.

Schedule network template

D.

Applying leads and lags

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Question # 78

The widget production project is well underway. The requirements are clear that each widget must weigh between 0.320 and 0.325 ounces. The first day of test production resulted in 1247 widgets. Of the widgets inspected, 47 percent fell within the acceptable weight range. This is an example of:

A.

Control limits.

B.

Quality assurance.

C.

Control charting.

D.

Corrective action.

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Question # 79

Company A bought a well-defined project deliverable from Company B. Company A will pay a fixed total price plus a percentage premium for the schedule target achieved.

A.

For which type of contract have they subscribed?

B.

Fixed-price-incentive-fee contracts (FPIF)

C.

Firm-fixed-price-contracts (FFP)

D.

Fixed price with Economic Price Adjustment Contracts (FP-EPA)

E.

Time and material contracts (T&M)

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Question # 80

Objectives can be described as all of the following except for which one? Choose the least correct answer.

A.

The monetary units used to express the cost criteria for the project

B.

The functionality and specific conditions that must be met in order to satisfy the project, contract, standard, or specification

C.

The quantifiable results used to measure project success that should include schedule, cost, and quality criteria

D.

The purpose for undertaking the project

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Question # 81

Identifying major deliverables, deciding if adequate cost estimates can be developed, and identifying tangible components of each deliverable are all part of which of the following?

A.

Work breakdown structure

B.

Organizational breakdown structure

C.

Resource breakdown structure

D.

Bill of materials

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Question # 82

A project manager has finished the project. He knows that the project scope has been completed and is within cost and time objectives set by management. Management, however, says that the project is a failure, because the original schedule was for 27 weeks and the project was completed in 33 weeks. If the project baseline was 33 weeks, the project is a success because:

A.

It only had six weeks of changes.

B.

It was completed within the baseline.

C.

There were so few changes.

D.

There was good communication control.

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Question # 83

Planning activities such that predetermined resource availability pools are not exceeded is called:

A.

Manpower planning.

B.

Manpower leveling.

C.

Resource leveling.

D.

Manpower contingency planning.

E.

Resource limited planning.

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Question # 84

What is the lowest level in the WBS at which the cost and activity durations for the work can be reliably estimated and managed?

A.

Work product

B.

Work package

C.

Project deliverable

D.

Scope baseline

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Question # 85

Which of the following is an example of a tool used in Plan Quality?

A.

Fishbone diagram

B.

Quality audit

C.

Cause and effect diagram

D.

Benchmarking

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Question # 86

You are working with XYZ organization. Your senior manager imposed new delivery date which is earlier than mentioned project deliverables date in scope statement.

To whom you are most accountable?

A.

customer

B.

team member

C.

sponsor

D.

senior manager

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Question # 87

You are a project manager for an agricultural supply company. You have just completed and obtained sign-off on the project scope statement for your new Natural Bug Busters project. A key stakeholder has informed you that a deliverable is missing from the project scope statement. This deliverable is a critical success factor.

Which of the following actions should you take?

A.

Modify the scope statement to reflect the new deliverable.

B.

Modify the scope statement after an approved change request has been received from the stakeholder.

C.

Inform the stakeholder that work not stated in the scope statement is excluded from the project.

D.

Inform the stakeholder that this deliverable must be included in phase two of this project since sign-off has already been obtained.

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Question # 88

You know that PV = 470, AC = 430, EV = 480, EAC = 500, and BAC = 525.

What is VAC?

A.

25

B.

30

C.

20

D.

70

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Question # 89

What is the number of stakeholders, if the project has 28 potential communication channels?

A.

7

B.

8

C.

14

D.

16

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Question # 90

Which tool and technique identifies inefficient and ineffective policies, processes and procedures?

A.

Scope audits

B.

Scope reviews

C.

Quality audits

D.

Control chart

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Question # 91

Forecasts, requested changes, recommended corrective actions, and organizational process asset updates are all outputs of which process?

A.

Risk response planning

B.

Risk monitoring and control

C.

Performance reporting

D.

Manage stakeholders

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Question # 92

Which of the following risk management processes uses brainstorming as a technique?

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Monitor and Control Risks

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Plan Risk Responses

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Question # 93

The quality management plan documents how the project team will implement the quality policy.

It must address all of the following except which one?

A.

Continuous process improvement

B.

Quality assurance

C.

Quality control

D.

Quality checklists

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