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CPIM-8.0 Questions and Answers

Question # 6

An organization wishes to utilize a managed Domain Name System (DNS) provider to reduce the risk of users accessing known malicious sites when web browsing. The organization operates DNS forwarders that forward queries for all external domains to the DNS provider. Which of the following techniques could enable the organization to identify client systems that have attempted to access known malicious domains?

A.

DNS over Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

B.

DNS sinkholing

C.

Deep packet inspection

D.

Domain Name System Security Extensions (DNSSEC)

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Question # 7

A company that uses concurrent engineering is likely to experience which of the following outcomes in the first period of a product's life cycle?

A.

Fewer product design changes

B.

An increase in obsolete inventory

C.

More accurate forecasting

D.

Conflicts between purchasing and engineering

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Question # 8

In a Zero Trust (ZT) model, where should the enforcement component be placed and why?

A.

Between the policy engine and the trust engine, because it enforces security policies

B.

As close to the workload as possible, because it impacts authorization decisions

C.

As close to the workload as possible, because it impacts authentication decisions

D.

Between the data stores and the trust engine, because it improves security policies

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Question # 9

Which of the following factors typically would distort a sales forecast that is based solely on shipment history?

A.

Material shortages

B.

Labor rate changes

C.

Currency exchange rates

D.

Customer demands

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Question # 10

When conducting a vulnerability test using a scanner tool, which unintended consequence can occur?

A.

Opening of previously closed ports

B.

Adding administrator rights on servers

C.

Performing a Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) attack

D.

Creating a Denial-Of-Service (DoS) condition

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Question # 11

An organization has identified that an individual has failed to adhere to a given standard set by the organization. Based on the needs of the organization, it was decided that an exception process will be created. What is the PRIMARY benefit of establishing an exception process?

A.

Prevent future material audit findings.

B.

Provide administrators with more autonomy.

C.

Enable management of organizational risk.

D.

Ensure better Business Continuity (BC).

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Question # 12

What is the MOST likely cause for a penetration tester having difficulties finding the stack to inject code?

A.

Advanced Threat Protection (ATP)

B.

Address Space Layout Randomization (ASLR)

C.

Structured exception handling overwrite protection

D.

Export address table filtering

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Question # 13

What is the PRIMARY secure protocol used by a Content Delivery Network (CDN)?

A.

Internet Protocol Security (IPsec)

B.

Secure shell (SSH)

C.

Transport Layer Security (TLS)

D.

Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP)

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Question # 14

Long lead-time items with stable demand would best be supported by a supply chain:

A.

using a pull system.

B.

linked through an enterprise resources planning (ERP) system.

C.

designed to be responsive.

D.

positioning inventory close to the consumer.

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Question # 15

Which of the following situations is most likely to occur when using a push system?

A.

Work centers receive work even if capacity is not available.

B.

Work centers are scheduled using finite capacity planning.

C.

Work centers operate using decentralized control.

D.

Work centers signal previous work centers when they are ready for more work.

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Question # 16

An organization has network services in a data center that are provisioned only for internal use, and staff at offices and staff working from home both use the services to store sensitive customer data. The organization does not want the Internet Protocol (IP) address of the service to receive traffic from users not related to the organization. Which technology is MOST useful to the organization in protecting this network?

A.

Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

B.

Domain Name System (DNS)

C.

Network Address Translation (NAT)

D.

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

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Question # 17

Which technology is BEST suited to establish a secure communications link between an individual’s home office and the organization’s Local Area Network (LAN)?

A.

Switched Port Analyzer (SPAN)

B.

Representational State Transfer (REST)

C.

Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)

D.

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

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Question # 18

For a process that is outside its upper control limit (UCL), which of the following techniques would best be used to return the process under control?

A.

Conduct a Pareto analysis

B.

Plan-do-check-action (PDCA)

C.

Plot histograms

D.

Monitor control charts

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Question # 19

Which of the following documents is the BEST reference to describe application functionality?

A.

Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)

B.

System security plan

C.

Business Impact Analysis (BIA) report

D.

Vulnerability assessment report

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Question # 20

Which authentication method is used by an email server to verify that a sender’s Internet Protocol (IP) address is authorized to send messages by the sending domain?

A.

DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM)

B.

Sender policy framework

C.

Pointer record

D.

Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions (S/MIME)

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Question # 21

A low-cost provider strategy works best when which of the following conditions are met?

A.

Price competition among rivals is similar.

B.

Buyers are more price sensitive.

C.

There are many ways to achieve product differentiation.

D.

There are few industry newcomers.

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Question # 22

Bad actors with little expense can easily make calls. Which social engineer strategy is a telecommunications ONLY risk concept?

A.

Pretexting

B.

Diversion theft

C.

Phreaking

D.

Baiting

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Question # 23

What is an important countermeasure to consider when hardening network devices and servers to reduce the effectiveness of unauthorized network scanning?

A.

Filter inbound logging and auditing configuration of all network devices.

B.

Filter inbound Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) messages at the network edge.

C.

Filter outbound logging and auditing configuration of all network devices.

D.

Filter outbound Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) messages at the network edge.

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Question # 24

In the context of mobile device security, which of the following BEST describes why a walled garden should be implemented?

A.

To track user actions and activity

B.

To prevent the installation of untrusted software

C.

To restrict a user's ability to change device settings

D.

To limit web access to only approved sites

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Question # 25

What document MOST likely states an organization’s values?

A.

Union labor agreement

B.

Information protection policy

C.

Code of conduct

D.

Management standards

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Question # 26

An attacker wants to decrypt a message and has no knowledge of what may have been in the original message. The attacker chooses to use an attack that will exhaust the keyspace in order to decrypt the message. What type of cryptanalytic attack is the attacker using?

A.

Ciphertext only

B.

Chosen ciphertext

C.

Brute force

D.

Known plaintext

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Question # 27

The question below is based on the following information:

Work Center 1 has an available capacity of 1,200 hours per month. Which of the following amounts represents the cumulative difference between the required capacity and the available capacity of Months 1 through 3?

A.

50

B.

150

C.

1.250

D.

3.750

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Question # 28

Who is ultimately responsible for ensuring that specific data is protected?

A.

Custodian

B.

Data owner

C.

Data controller

D.

System owner

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Question # 29

In the Session layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model, which of the following modes allows only one host to send information to its peer?

A.

Simplex

B.

Unicast

C.

Half-duplex

D.

Full-duplex

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Question # 30

What BEST describes the end goal of a Disaster Recovery (DR) program?

A.

Review the status of mission-critical applications.

B.

Prevent business interruption.

C.

Continue business operations during a contingency.

D.

Restore normal business operations.

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Question # 31

Which of the following is the fundamental difference between finite loading and other capacity planning approaches?

A.

It is highly dependent on advanced computer software to function effectively.

B.

It is only managed by shop floor supervisors.

C.

It can use historical information to drive decision-making processes.

D.

It considers adjustments to plans based on planned capacity utilization.

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Question # 32

An organization is restructuring its network architecture in which system administrators from the corporate office need to be able to connect to the branch office to perform various system maintenance activities. What network architecture would be MOST secure?

A.

Jump-server on a Local Area Network (LAN)

B.

Bastion host over a Wide Area Network (WAN)

C.

Jump-server connected to a Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN)

D.

Bastion host with Virtual Private Network (VPN) termination point

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Question # 33

When an organization is recruiting for roles within the organization, at which stage of the employee life cycle are termination procedures incorporated?

A.

Security training

B.

Orientation

C.

User provisioning

D.

Background check

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Question # 34

If an organization wanted to protect is data against loss of confidentiality in transit, which type of encryption is BEST?

A.

Symmetric cryptography

B.

Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) with asymmetric keys

C.

Password encryption using hashing (with salt and pepper)

D.

Message Authentication Code (MAC) using hashing

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Question # 35

An organization has recently been hacked. To prevent future breaches, the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) hires a third-party vendor to perform penetration testing on the network. Once complete, the vendor provides to the CISO a final report generated by a high-quality vulnerability scanner. The CISO rejects the report as incomplete.

Why is the vendor's penetration test considered incomplete?

A.

The vendor should have attempted to exploit the identified vulnerabilities.

B.

The vendor should also provide a guide to remediate the identified vulnerabilities.

C.

The vendor should have provided a risk report of vulnerabilities found.

D.

The vendor should have worked closely with network engineers to understand the network infrastructure better.

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Question # 36

Which of the following methods places a replenishment order when the quantity on hand falls below a predetermined level?

A.

Min-max system

B.

Fixed order quantity

C.

Periodic review

D.

Available-to-promlse (ATP)

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Question # 37

Which of the following tools is used to evaluate the impact that a production plan has on capacity?

A.

Demand time fence (DTF)

B.

Bill of resources

C.

Product routing

D.

Safety capacity

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Question # 38

An order winner during the growth stage of a product's life cycle is:

A.

variety.

B.

availability.

C.

dependability.

D.

price.

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Question # 39

Which of the following tools is used to evaluate the impact that a production plan has on capacity?

A.

Demand time fence (DTF)

B.

Bill of resources

C.

Product routing

D.

Safety capacity

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Question # 40

An organization has integrated its enterprise resource planning system into its centralized Identity and Access Management (IAM) system to automate provisioning of access. A security audit revealed that privileged access granted within the ERP system is not visible in the IAM system. Which of the following controls BEST mitigates this risk?

A.

Implement step-up authentication for privileged functions within the ERP system.

B.

Implement a periodic review of privileged access within the ERP system.

C.

Implement an automated reconciliation process between ERP and IAM systems.

D.

Implement a periodic review of all ERP access within the IAM system.

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Question # 41

Which of the following statements is true about the meantime between failures (MTBF) measure?

A.

It is used for non-repairable products.

B.

An increase in MTBF is proportional to anincrease inquality.

C.

It is a useful measure of reliability.

D.

It is the same as operating life or service life.

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Question # 42

Network Access Control (NAC) is used to perform what function for computers joining the network?

A.

Ensure all networking components communicate with each other.

B.

Ensure that all approved devices can join the network.

C.

Restrict access to the network based on Media Access Control (MAC) address or Internet Protocol (IP) address.

D.

Restrict the time and date that computers are allowed to connect to the organization’s network.

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Question # 43

The production plan defines which of the following targets?

A.

Sales forecast

B.

Quantities of each product to be produced

C.

Level of output to be produced

D.

Business plans for the company

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Question # 44

An organization routes traffic between two of its sites using non-revenue network paths provided by peers on an Internet exchange point. What is the MOST appropriate recommendation the organization's security staff can make to prevent a compromise?

A.

Cease routing traffic over the Internet exchange point and use the transit provider exclusively.

B.

Ask the peers who route the traffic to sign a Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA).

C.

Use Internet Protocol Security (IPsec) between the border gateways at either site.

D.

Nothing needs to be done because applications are already required to encrypt and authenticate network traffic.

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Question # 45

Which of the following methods would be appropriate for forecasting the demand for a product family when there is a significant trend and seasonality in the demand history?

A.

Econometric models

B.

Computer simulation

C.

Time series decomposition

D.

Weighted moving average

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Question # 46

A security administrator of a large organization is using Mobile Device Management (MDM) technology for protecting mobile devices. Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure that only company-approved mobile software can be deployed?

A.

Application blacklisting

B.

Application inventory

C.

Application digital signature

D.

Controlled app store

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Question # 47

When performing threat modeling using Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial Of Service, And Elevation of Privilege (STRIDE), which of the following is an example of a repudiation threat?

A.

Using someone else's account

B.

Distributed Denial-Of-Service (DDoS)

C.

SQL Injection (SQLi)

D.

Modifying a file

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Question # 48

An organization is opening a new data center and is looking for a facilities security officer to provide best practices for the site and facility design. The two major requirements for this organization are not to attract undue attention and avoid proximity to potentially hazardous sites.

What site selection considerations do these requirements BEST fall under when deciding on the location for a facility?

A.

Visibility and natural disasters

B.

Visibility and locale

C.

Visibility and hazardous sites

D.

Visibility and transportation

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Question # 49

An organization’s computer incident responses team PRIMARY responds to which type of control?

A.

Administrative

B.

Detective

C.

Corrective

D.

presentative

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Question # 50

The development team wants new commercial software to Integrate into the current systems. What steps can the security office take to ensure the software has no vulnerabilities?

A.

Request a copy of the most recent System and Organization Controls (SOC) report and/or most recent security audit reports and any vulnerability scans of the software code from the vendor.

B.

Purchase the software, deploy it in a test environment, and perform Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST) on the software.

C.

Request a software demo with permission to have a third-party penetration test completed on it.

D.

Ask the development team to reevaluate the current program and have a toolset developed securely within the organization.

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Question # 51

In conducting a new corporate payroll system security review, which of the following individuals should answer questions regarding the data classification?

A.

Head of human capital

B.

Head of compliance

C.

Chief Information Security Officer (CISO)

D.

Chief Information Officer (CIO)

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Question # 52

An organization uses an external Identity Provider (IdP) to secure internal, external, or third-party applications. Which of the following is the GREATEST risk to the organization?

A.

Unavailability of access logs

B.

Integrity of authentication mechanism

C.

Compromise of service

D.

Deletion of federated tokens

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Question # 53

In a rapidly changing business environment, a primary advantage of an effective customer relationship management (CRM) program is:

A.

reduced forecast variability.

B.

fewer customer order changes.

C.

fewer customer defections.

D.

earlier Identification of shifts Incustomer preferences.

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Question # 54

Which of the following statements is true about total productive maintenance (TPM)?

A.

It uses statistical tools.

B.

It is part of the business strategy.

C.

It influences the product design process.

D.

It minimizes unscheduled breakdowns.

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Question # 55

Which of the following is a methodology for threat modeling in application?

A.

Disaster, Reproducibility, Exploitability, Affected Users, And Discoverability (DREAD)

B.

Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial of Service, Elevation of Privilege (STRIDE)

C.

Pretend, Allow, Crash, Modify, Ascertain, Name

D.

Confidentiality, Authentication, Integrity, Nonrepudiation, Availability

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Question # 56

Which of the following should Business Impact Analysis (BIA) reports always include?

A.

Security assessment report

B.

Recovery time objectives

C.

Plan of action and milestones

D.

Disaster Recovery Plans (DRP)

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Question # 57

Management should support investments in new process technologies that:

A.

require minimal changes in existing systems, procedures, and skills.

B.

have been recommended by technical experts and equipment suppliers.

C.

provide significant cost-reduction opportunities for the company's current products.

D.

provide long-term competitive advantage with acceptable financial risk.

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Question # 58

Which of the following is a core subset of The Open Group Architecture Framework (TOGAF) enterprise architecture model?

A.

Security architecture

B.

Availability architecture

C.

Privacy architecture

D.

Data architecture

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Question # 59

Moving average forecasting methods are best when demand shows:

A.

a clear trend.

B.

high random variation.

C.

consistent seasonality.

D.

a cyclical pattern.

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Question # 60

Which approach will BEST mitigate risks associated with root user access while maintaining system functionality?

A.

Creating a system where administrative tasks are performed under monitored sessions using the root account, with audits conducted regularly

B.

Implementing a policy where users log in as root for complex tasks but use personal accounts for everyday activities, with strict logging of root access

C.

Configuring individual user accounts with necessary privileges for specific tasks and employing “sudo” for occasional administrative needs

D.

Allowing key authorized personnel to access the root account for critical system changes, while other staff use limited accounts with “sudo” for routine tasks

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Question # 61

Which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) layer is concerned with Denial-Of-Service (DoS) SYN flood attacks?

A.

Data

B.

Physical

C.

Network

D.

Transport

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Question # 62

Which of the following conditions is most likely to result in planned production that is greater than the total demand over the sales and operations planning (S&OP) horizon for a product family that is

made to stock?

A.

An increase in the customer service level is planned for the product family.

B.

New models are being added to the product family.

C.

Planned ending inventory for the product family is less than the beginning inventory.

D.

There is a long-term upward trend in demand for the product family.

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Question # 63

Which of the following benefits typically will be realized when switching from a functional to a cellular layout?

A.

Equipment utilization will be higher.

B.

Quality inspections will be reduced.

C.

Capital expenditures will be reduced.

D.

Products will have faster throughput.

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Question # 64

What activity is a useful element in the change process?

A.

Creating short-term wins

B.

Calculating a break-even point

C.

Performing a SWOT analysis

D.

Developing key performance indicators (KPIs)

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Question # 65

A security practitioner has been asked to investigate the presence of customer Personally Identifiable Information (PII) on a social media website. Where does the practitioner begin?

A.

Review logs of all user's social media activity.

B.

Review the organizational social media policy.

C.

Initiate the organization's incident response plan.

D.

Determine a list of information assets that contain PII.

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Question # 66

Which of the following is the workflow of the identity and access provisioning lifecycle?

A.

Creation, Assessment, Deletion

B.

Assessment, Creation, Deletion

C.

Provision, Review, Revocation

D.

Review, Provision, Revocation

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Question # 67

Zombieload, Meltdown, Spectre, and Fallout are all names of bugs that utilized which of the following types of attack?

A.

Mai-In-The-Middle (MITM)

B.

Side-Channel

C.

Frequency analysis

D.

Fault injection

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Question # 68

Zombieload, Meltdown, Spectre, and Fallout are all names of bugs that utilized which of the following types of attack?

A.

Mai-In-The-Middle (MITM)

B.

Side-Channel

C.

Frequency analysis

D.

Fault injection

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Question # 69

What function prevents unauthorized devices from gaining access to a network?

A.

Network Access Control (NAC)

B.

Storage Area Network (SAN)

C.

Network Address Translation (NAT)

D.

Software-Defined Network (SDN)

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Question # 70

A company has a demand for 30 units of A, 40 units of B, and 50 units of C. These products are scheduled to run daily in batches of 10 as follows: ABC, ABC, ABC, CBC. What is this scheduling

technique called?

A.

Mixed-model

B.

Matrix

C.

Synchronized

D.

Line balancing

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Question # 71

A security engineer must address resource sharing between various applications without adding physical hardware to the environment. Which secure design principle is used to BEST segregate applications?

A.

Network firewalls

B.

Logical isolation

C.

Application firewalls

D.

Physical isolation

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Question # 72

An organization provides customer call center operations for major financial service organizations around the world. As part of a long-term strategy, the organization plans to add healthcare clients to the portfolio. In preparation for contract negotiations with new clients, to which cybersecurity framework(s) should the security team ensure the organization adhere?

A.

Frameworks that fit the organization’s risk appetite, as cybersecurity does not vary industry to industry

B.

Control Objectives For Information And Related Technology (COBIT) and Health Insurance Portability And Accountability Act (HIPAA) frameworks

C.

Frameworks specific to the industries and locations clients do business in

D.

National Institute Of Standards And Technology and International Organization For Standardization (ISO) frameworks

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Question # 73

While doing a penetration test, auditors found an old credential hash for a privileged user. To prevent a privileged user's hash from being cached, what is the MOST appropriate policy to mandate?

A.

Add privileged user to the domain admin group.

B.

Add privileged users to the protected users group.

C.

Enable security options for each privileged user.

D.

Place each privileged user in a separate Kerberos policy.

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Question # 74

Which of the following factors is the MOST important consideration for a security team when determining when determining whether cryptographic erasure can be used for disposal of a device?

A.

If the methods meet the International organization For Standardization/International Electrotechnical Commission (ISO/IEC) 27001.

B.

If the data on the device exceeds what cryptographic erasure can safely process.

C.

If the device was encrypted prior using cipher block chaining.

D.

If the security policies allow for cryptographic erasure based on the data stored on the device.

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Question # 75

Which of the following items does the master scheduler have the authority to change in the master scheduling process?

A.

Product mix

B.

Aggregate volume

C.

Engineering change effectivity date

D.

Customer order quantities

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Question # 76

A security team member is assessing an organization’s backup strategy that follows the 3-2-1 rule. How many different types of media should they inspect to validate?

A.

6

B.

3

C.

2

D.

1

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Question # 77

Which of the following BEST describes web service security conformance testing as it relates to web services security testing?

A.

Generally includes threat modeling, requirements risk analysis, and security modeling

B.

Focused on ensuring that the security functionally performed by a web service meets its stated requirements

C.

Ensure individual protocol implementations adhere to the relevant published standards

D.

Focused on the smallest unit of the web service application, apart from the rest of the application

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Question # 78

In a lean environment, the batch-size decision for planning "A" items would be done by:

A.

least total cost.

B.

min-max system.

C.

lot-for-lot (L4L).

D.

periodic order quantity.

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Question # 79

An organization provides customer call center operations for major financial services organizations around the world. As part of a long-term strategy, the organization plans to add healthcare clients to the portfolio. In preparation for contract negotiations with new clients, to which cybersecurity framework(s) should the security team ensure the organization adhere?

A.

Control Objectives For Information And Related Technology (COBIT) and Health Insurance Portability And Accountability Act (HIPAA) frameworks

B.

National Institute Of Standards And Technology (NIST) and International Organization For Standardization (ISO) frameworks

C.

Frameworks specific to the industries and locations clients do business in

D.

Frameworks that fit the organization’s risk appetite, as cybersecurity does not vary industry to industry

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Question # 80

What should an organization do to prepare for Disaster Recovery (DR) efforts?

A.

Create a list of key personnel

B.

Create a list of decommissioned hardware

C.

Review tabletop exercises

D.

Replicate access logs

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Question # 81

Based on the values reported in the table below, what is the inventory turnover?

A.

0.50

B.

0.58

C.

1.73

D.

2.60

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Question # 82

Which of the following is the benefit of using Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP) version 2 on endpoint devices?

A.

Apply patches to endpoints across the enterprise.

B.

Use software configuration management for endpoints.

C.

Monitor endpoints by collecting software inventory and configuration settings.

D.

Enforce Two-Factor Authentication (2FA) on endpoints across the enterprise.

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Question # 83

A financial organization is using an internally developed application. The internal software development team has to adhere to the coding standards of the Software Development Cycle (SDLC). For applications whose functionality is exposed through the public Internet, this requirement consists of testing the application for potential vulnerabilities before it is deployed into production. What is the BEST type of vulnerability test to perform?

A.

Web application unit test

B.

Online application development test

C.

Web application penetration test

D.

Online application assurance test

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Question # 84

The Information Technology (IT) manager of a large organization has been tasked with implementing a distributed third-party Identity As A Service (IDaaS). The local security team is concerned that the Identity Provider (IdP) and resource provider have direct connectivity outside of enterprise control. Which of the following authentication methods BEST address this concern?

A.

Federation authorities access list

B.

Manual registration

C.

Proxied federation

D.

Signed assertion

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Question # 85

A semiconductor manufacturer is writing a physical asset handling policy. Which of the following is MOST likely to be the rationale for the policy?

A.

Access of system logs to authorized staff

B.

Accurate and prompt tagging of all business files

C.

Assurance of safe and clean handling of company property

D.

Adoption of environmental controls in the server room

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Question # 86

In a large organization, the average time for a new user to receive access is seven days. Which of the following is the BEST enabler to shorten this time?

A.

Implement a self-service password management capability

B.

Increase system administration personnel

C.

Implement an automated provisioning tool

D.

Increase authorization workflow steps

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Question # 87

After a recent cybersecurity incident, a manufacturing organization is interested in further hardening its Identity and Access Management (IAM) solution. Knowing that the organization limits the use of personal devices in the facility, which could BEST be implemented to enhance the manufacturing organization's IAM solution?

A.

Enhanced background checks

B.

Mobile Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) application

C.

Biometric system

D.

Personal Identification Number (PIN) code

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Question # 88

Which of the following factors is used to determine safety stock?

A.

Number of customers

B.

Available capacity

C.

Forecast error distribution

D.

Time between customer orders

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Question # 89

Which of the following should be done FIRST when implementing an Identity and Access Management (IAM) solution?

A.

List and evaluate IAM available products.

B.

Evaluate the existing Information Technology (IT) environment.

C.

Evaluate business needs.

D.

Engage the sponsor and identify key stakeholders.

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Question # 90

A Software As A Service (SaaS) solution was compromised due to multiple missing security controls. The SaaS deployment was rushed and the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) was not followed. Which SDLC phase would have been MOST effective in preventing this failure?

A.

Design

B.

Requirements

C.

Maintenance

D.

Testing

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Question # 91

When implementing a data classification program, Which is MOST important for measuring businesss impact?

A.

Data classification program being rolled out in accordance with policies and procedures

B.

Measuring the size of the data set to understand scoping for compliance requirements

C.

The adverse effect of data leakage

D.

The early appointment of data custodians

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Question # 92

An organization is implementing improvements to secure the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC). When should defensive three modeling occur?

A.

Standards review

B.

Static Application Security Testing (SAST)

C.

Design and requirements gathering

D.

Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST)

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Question # 93

A company is having trouble with raw material deliveries and has decided to develop a supplier certification program. The certification process most appropriately would start with which of the following suppliers?

A.

Suppliers of "A“ classified items

B.

Suppliers recently ISO 9000 certified

C.

Suppliers with the worst performance records

D.

Suppliers with vendor-managed inventory (VMI)

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Question # 94

A recent email-based malware breakout caused a significant volume of traffic and password spam account lockouts for an organization. Which BEST identifies compromised devices?

A.

Security Information And Event Management (SIEM)

B.

Network Intrusion Detection System (NIDS)

C.

Vulnerability scan

D.

Penetration test

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Question # 95

Which of the following controls should a financial Institution have in place in order to prevent a trader from both entering and executing a trade?

A.

Cameras in the trading room

B.

Two-Factor Authentication (2FA)

C.

Separation of Duties (SoD)

D.

Least privilege

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Question # 96

A security specialist is responsible to improve the security awareness program of a medium-sized organization and tasked to track blocked targeted attacks. Which of the following BEST describes the outcome of the security specialist’s use of metrics for this task?

A.

A decrease in reported suspicious activity that aligns with an increase in detection of malware and Domain Name Server (DNS) queries to blocked sites.

B.

An increase in reported suspicious activity that aligns with a decrease in detection of malware and Domain Name Server (DNS) queries to blocked sites.

C.

An increase in reported changes in click percentage that aligns with a decrease in the number of phishes and incidents reported.

D.

A decrease in reported changes in click percentages that aligns with an increase in the number of phishes and incidents reported.

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Question # 97

The Information Technology (IT) manager of a large organization has been tasked with implementing a distributed third-party Identity As A Service (IDaaS). The local security team is concerned that the Identity Provider (IdP) and resource provider have direct connectivity outside of enterprise control. Which of the following authentication methods BEST address this concern?

A.

Federation authorities access list

B.

Manual registration

C.

Proxied federation

D.

Signed assertion

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Question # 98

A financial services organization wants to deploy a wireless network. Which of the following is the WEAKEST option for ensuring a secure network?

A.

Separating internal wireless users from guests

B.

Media Access control (MAC) address filtering

C.

Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)

D.

Deploy mutual authentication between the client and the network

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Question # 99

Which of the following techniques would a group use to prioritize problems?

A.

Critical path analysis

B.

Pareto analysis

C.

Scatter charts

D.

Cause-and-effect diagrams

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Question # 100

A security consultant is working with an organization to help evaluate a proposal received from a new managed security service provider. There are questions about the confidentiality and effectiveness of the provider's system over a period of time. Which of the following System And Organization Controls (SOC) report types should the consultant request from the provider?

A.

SOC 2 Type 1

B.

SOC 2 Type 2

C.

SOC 1 Type 1

D.

SOC 1 Type 2

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Question # 101

Health information stored in paper form may be destroyed using which of the following methods?

A.

Shredding

B.

Degaussing

C.

De-identification

D.

Archiving

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Question # 102

Which of the following presents the GREATEST benefit to an organization's security posture when a change management process is implemented?

A.

Accuracy of Key Risk Indicators (KRI) reported to senior management

B.

Ensure the integrity of the organization's assets

C.

Backups being completed in a timely manner

D.

Accuracy of Key Performance Indicators (KPI) reported to senior management

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Question # 103

The Business Continuity Plan (BCP) has multiple components. The information security plan portion must prioritize its efforts. Which 3 aspects of information security MUST be prioritized?

A.

Confidentiality, integrity, availability

B.

Physical security, access control, asset protection

C.

Intent, capability, opportunity

D.

Threat level, network security, information disposal

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Question # 104

Which of the following is a component of the Clark-Wilson model?

A.

Transformation procedures

B.

Enforcement rules

C.

Data classifications

D.

Integrity labels

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Question # 105

Which burden of proof has been applied when a workplace investigation has a 51 percent or greater certainty that allegations are true?

A.

Preponderance of evidence

B.

Beyond a reasonable doubt

C.

Some credible evidence

D.

Clear and convincing

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Question # 106

An organization is attempting to address the security risk introduced by employees writing down door entry passcodes. Which of the following security measures BEST mitigates this risk?

A.

Privileged Access Management (PAM) policy

B.

Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)

C.

Video log monitoring

D.

Notification alerts

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Question # 107

A financial services organization wants to deploy a wireless network. Which of the following is the WEAKEST option for ensuring a secure network?

A.

Separating internal wireless users from guests

B.

Media Access control (MAC) address filtering

C.

Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)

D.

Deploy mutual authentication between the client and the network

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Question # 108

Once an organization has identified and properly classified their information and data assets, policies and procedures are created to establish requirements for the handling, protection, retention, and disposal of those assets. Which solution is the BEST method to enforce data usage policies, discover sensitive data, monitor the use of sensitive data, and ensure regulatory compliance and intellectual property protection?

A.

Application whitelisting

B.

Data governance

C.

Data loss prevention (DLP)

D.

Intrusion detection and prevention system (IDPS)

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Question # 109

The costs provided in the table below are associated with buying a quantity larger than immediately needed. What Is the total landed cost based on this table?

Cost CategoryCost

Custom fees$125

Freight$700

Warehouse rent$200

Matenal cost$500

A.

$825

B.

$1,325

C.

$1,400

D.

$1,525

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Question # 110

The project manager has updated the project steering committee that a security vulnerability was found after applying the system security baseline, and remediation has been completed to close the vulnerability. What is the BEST next step for the project?

A.

Update the security baseline and continue with the next project task.

B.

Proceed with the next project task to meet the project deadlines.

C.

Obtain approval from the project steering, committee to revise the system security baseline.

D.

Create a change request for the system baseline revision.

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Question # 111

Which of the following should be done FIRST when implementing an Identity and Access Management (IAM) solution?

A.

List and evaluate IAM available products.

B.

Evaluate the existing Information Technology (IT) environment.

C.

Evaluate business needs.

D.

Engage the sponsor and identify key stakeholders.

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Question # 112

An organization is implementing an enterprise resource planning system using the traditional waterfall Software development Life Cycle (SDLC) model. When is the BEST time to perform a code review to identity security gaps?

A.

When the software is being released for testing

B.

When full system code is being merged

C.

When business analysis is being performed and systems requirements are being identified

D.

When system architecture is being defined and user interface is being designed

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Question # 113

A large organization wants to implement a vulnerability management system in its internal network. A security professional has been hired to set up a vulnerability scanner on premises and to execute the scans periodically. Which of the following should be the FIRST action performed by the security professional?

A.

Configure internal firewalls to accept and pass all scanner traffic and responses

B.

Execute a vulnerability scan to determine the current organization security posture

C.

Select two different vulnerability scanners to get comprehensive reporting

D.

Obtain support from the computing systems' stakeholders

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Question # 114

Which of the following is a threat modeling methodology used for accessing threats against applications and Operating Systems (OS)?

A.

Basically Available, Soft-State, Eventual-Consistency (BASE)

B.

Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial Of Service, And Elevation Of Privilege (STRIDE)

C.

Control Objectives For Information And Related Technology (COBIT)

D.

Security, Trust, Assurance And Risk (STAR)

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Question # 115

An organization is transitioning from a traditional server-centric infrastructure to a cloud-based Infrastructure. Shortly after the transition, a major breach occurs to the organization's databases. In an Infrastructure As A Service (IaaS) model, who would be held responsible for the breach?

A.

The database vendor

B.

The third-party auditor

C.

The organization

D.

The Cloud Service Provider (CSP)

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Question # 116

An organization routes traffic between two of its sites using non-revenue network paths provided by peers on an Internet exchange point. What is the MOST appropriate recommendation the organization's security staff can make to prevent a compromise?

A.

Cease routing traffic over the Internet exchange point and use the transit provider exclusively.

B.

Ask the peers who route the traffic to sign a Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA).

C.

Use Internet Protocol Security (IPsec) between the border gateways at either site.

D.

Nothing needs to be done because applications are already required to encrypt and authenticate network traffic.

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Question # 117

An organization has been struggling to improve their security posture after a recent breach. Where should the organization focus their efforts?

A.

Business Continuity Plan (BCP)

B.

Service-Level Agreements (SLA)

C.

Common configuration enumerations

D.

National vulnerabilities database

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Question # 118

Privacy requirements across national boundaries MOST often require protection of which data types?

A.

Contact information for elected officials and local and national government web content

B.

Contact information related to minors, medical records, and Personally Identifiable Information (PII)

C.

Contact information for board members, proprietary trade secrets, and income statements

D.

Contact information related to medical doctors, Protected Health Information (PHI), and Personally Identifiable Information (PII)

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Question # 119

Which of the following factors is used to determine safety stock?

A.

Number of customers

B.

Available capacity

C.

Forecast error distribution

D.

Time between customer orders

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Question # 120

For a process that is outside its upper control limit (UCL), which of the following techniques would best be used to return the process under control?

A.

Conduct a Pareto analysis

B.

Plan-do-check-action (PDCA)

C.

Plot histograms

D.

Monitor control charts

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Question # 121

Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) training can be considered complete when the participants

A.

understand the rationale behind why a specific Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) strategy was chosen.

B.

receive a complete, accurate, and detailed explanation of the Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP).

C.

understand their roles and interactions with other roles.

D.

have demonstrated their understanding during an actual disaster.

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Question # 122

During an emergency management and planning session, an organization is discussing how to identify, prevent, prepare for, or respond to emergencies. Which of the following will provide the BEST possible outcome?

APerform drills on a recurring basis.

B.Harden all critical facilities.

C.Outsource to an external organization.

D.Allocate 100% of required funds.

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Question # 123

A financial institution is implementing an Information Technology (IT) asset management system. Which of the following capabilities is the MOST important to include?

A.

Logging the data leak protection status of the IT asset

B.

Tracking the market value of the IT asset

C.

Receiving or transferring an IT asset

D.

Recording the bandwidth and data usage of the IT asset

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Question # 124

In which of the following circumstances is an organization MOST likely to report the accidental release of personal data to the European Union (EU) General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) supervisory authority and affected users?

A.

The release of personal data was made to a highly trusted third-party vendor and there was confirmation that the data was not accessed before it was returned.

B.

The personal data was stored in a highly encrypted format and there is confirmation that the encryption keys were not accessed or released.

C.

All the personal data from the accidental release was from individuals who are not living in the EU.

D.

The personal data released only contained the ages and names of children who may or may not be living in the EU.

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Question # 125

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using federated identity?

A.

The administrative burden is increased

B.

The application has access to the user’s credentials

C.

Applications may need complex modifications to implement

D.

A compromised credential provides access to all the user’s applications

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Question # 126

The time spent In queue by a specific manufacturing job is determined by which of the following factors related to the order?

A.

Lot size

B.

Priority

C.

Setup time

D.

Run time

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Question # 127

Risk pooling would work best for items with:

A.

low demand uncertainty and short lead times.

B.

low demand uncertainty and long lead times.

C.

high demand uncertainty and short lead times.

D.

high demand uncertainty and long lead times.

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Question # 128

Which of the following design considerations would offer the BEST protection against unauthorized access to the facility?

A.

Allowing only one person to enter at a time

B.

Auditing access logs annually

C.

Limiting access to regular business hours only

D.

Establishing entry points from public areas only

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Question # 129

During an onsite audit, an assessor inspected an organization’s asset decommission practice. Which of the following would MOST likely be a finding from a security point of view?

A.

Solid State Drives (SSD) were degaussed along with hard drives.

B.

The Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA) between the organization and its data disposal service was more than 3 years old.

C.

Hard drives from older assets replaced defective hard drives from current assets of similar classification levels.

D.

Data classifications were not clearly identified.

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Question # 130

Asymmetric cryptography uses which type of key to encrypt data?

A.

Private key

B.

Permanent key

C.

Parent key

D.

Public key

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Question # 131

Zombieload, Meltdown, Spectre, and Fallout are all names of bugs that utilized which of the following types of attack?

A.

Side-channel

B.

Fault injection

C.

Man-In-The-Middle (MITM)

D.

Frequency analysis

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Question # 132

Which of the following BEST describes an individual modifying something the individual is not supposed to?

A.

Exfiltration

B.

Tampering

C.

Spoofing

D.

Repudiation

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Question # 133

When a third-party needs to receive privileged information, which of the following would be the BEST to

transport the data?

A.

Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol

B.

Encrypted at rest

C.

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

D.

Encrypted in transit

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Question # 134

The primary outcome of frequent replenishments in a distribution requirements planning (DRP) system is that:

A.

lead times to customers decrease.

B.

transportation costs decrease.

C.

the level of required safety stock is reduced.

D.

more efficient load consolidation occurs.

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Question # 135

A health care organization's new cloud-based customer-facing application is constantly receiving security events from dubious sources. What BEST describes a security event that compromises the confidentiality, integrity or availability of the application and data?

A.

Failure

B.

Incident

C.

Attack

D.

Breach

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Question # 136

Which of the following incorporates design techniques promoted by Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design (CPTED)?

A.

Capacity of residents to act individually should be increased.

B.

Landscape design features should be used to create the impression of a fortress.

C.

Multiple entrances and exits should be used to keep traffic flowing smoothly through the facility.

D.

Communal areas with amenities should be created to encourage activity and use.

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Question # 137

An organization implemented a threat modeling program focusing on key assets. However, after a short time it became clear that the organization was having difficulty executing the threat modeling program.

Which approach will MOST likely have been easier to execute?

A.

System-centric approach

B.

Attacker-centric approach

C.

Asset-centric approach

D.

Developer-centric approach

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Question # 138

A product manager wishes to store sensitive development data using a cloud storage vendor while maintaining exclusive control over passwords and encryption credentials. What is the BEST method for meeting these requirements?

A.

Local self-encryption with passwords managed by a local password manager

B.

Client-side encryption keys and passwords generated dynamically during cloud access sessions

C.

Zero-knowledge encryption keys provided by the cloud storage vendor

D.

Passwords generated by a local password manager during cloud access sessions and encrypted in transit

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Question # 139

An organization has to conduct quarterly reviews of user authorization access to its primary financial application. Which position is responsible for performing these reviews?

A.

Internal audit manager

B.

Information Security Manager (ISM)

C.

Data custodian

D.

Data owner

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Question # 140

An organization decides to conduct penetration testing. Senior management is concerned about the potential loss of information through data exfiltration. The organization is currently preparing a major product launch that is time-sensitive. Which of the following methods of testing is MOST appropriate?

A.

Gray box

B.

Green box

C.

Black box

D.

White box

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Question # 141

Which of the following actions provides the BEST evidence for forensic analysis of powered-off device?

A.

Copy all potentially useful files from the system to a network drive.

B.

Image the entire hard disk on an external drive.

C.

Copy all system and application log files to an external drive.

D.

Collect the memory, running processes, and temporary files.

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Question # 142

It takes an average of 3 hours to set up a model and 1 hour to run, but depending on the complexity of the models, the setup time can be significantly different. Last week. 2 modelers were working on different projects. Each worked 40 hours. One modeler finished 5 models a day, and the other finished 1 model a day. What was the demonstrated capacity last week?

A.

25models

B.

15models

C.

10models

D.

30models

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Question # 143

An organization has hired a new auditor to review its critical systems infrastructure for vulnerabilities. Which of the following BEST describes the methodology the auditor will use to test whether servers are set up according to the organization's documented policies and standards?

A.

Select an appropriate sample size of changes to production servers related to critical systems within the audit period and ensure they adhere to documented policies and standards.

B.

Select an appropriate sample size of recently deployed servers and review their configuration files against the organization's policies and standards.

C.

Select all production servers related to critical systems and review their configuration files against the organization's policies and standards.

D.

Select an appropriate sample size of changes to recently deployed servers within the audit period and ensure they adhere to documented policies and standards.

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Question # 144

An organization decides to conduct penetration testing. Senior management is concerned about the potential loss of information through data exfiltration. The organization is currently preparing a major product launch that is time-sensitive. Which of the following methods of testing is MOST appropriate?

A.

Gray box

B.

Green box

C.

Black box

D.

White box

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Question # 145

An organization is preparing to deploy Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) to its workforce. The primary concerns of the organization are cost and security. The organization realizes that their entire workforce has computers and smartphones. Which of the following is BEST suited to address the organization's concerns?

A.

Soft token

B.

Short Message Service (SMS)

C.

Personal Identification Number (PIN) code

D.

Hard token

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Question # 146

Which of the following actions hinders the transition from a push system to a pull system?

A.

Using standardized containers

B.

Using work orders as a backup

C.

Introducing kanban cards as authorization for material movement

D.

Maintaining a constant number of kanban cards during minor changes in the level of production

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Question # 147

When resolving conflicts, which canon within the ISC2 Code of Ethics requires members to consider duties to principals and Individuals?

A.

Maintain the privacy and confidentiality of information obtained.

B.

Advance and protect the profession.

C.

Act honorably, honestly, justly, responsibly, and legally.

D.

Maintain competency in their respective fields.

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Question # 148

Which of the following planning modules considers the shortest-range planning goals?

A.

Capacity requirementsplanning(CRP)

B.

Input/output analysis

C.

Resource planning

D.

Rough-cut capacity planning (RCCP)

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Question # 149

When conducting a thorough risk assessment that involves identifying system threats and vulnerabilities and determining the potential for adverse effects on individuals, what additional factors MUST the organization consider?

A.

Developing a contingency roadmap that will provide processes for each identified and documented risk element

B.

Assessing the possible impact from unauthorized access on the organization's cyber insurance policies

C.

Defining which systems are maintained by third parties and whether their control processes have been included as part of the risk assessment

D.

Determining the likelihood and magnitude of harm from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, disruption, modification, or destruction of the system

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Question # 150

An agency has the requirement to establish a direct data connection with another organization for the purpose of exchanging data between the agency and organization systems. There is a requirement for a formal agreement between the agency and organization. Which source of standards can the system owners use to define the roles and responsibilities along with details for the technical and security requirements?

A.

International Organization For Standardization (ISO)

B.

European Committee for Electrotechnical Standardization

C.

Caribbean Community Regional Organization for Standards and Quality

D.

Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE)

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Question # 151

If an organization wanted to protect is data against loss of confidentiality in transit, which type of encryption is BEST?

A.

Symmetric cryptography

B.

Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) with asymmetric keys

C.

Password encryption using hashing (with salt and pepper)

D.

Message Authentication Code (MAC) using hashing

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Question # 152

An organization has integrated its enterprise resource planning system into its centralized Identity and Access Management (IAM) system to automate provisioning of access. A security audit revealed that privileged access granted within the ERP system is not visible in the IAM system. Which of the following controls BEST mitigates this risk?

A.

Implement step-up authentication for privileged functions within the ERP system.

B.

Implement a periodic review of privileged access within the ERP system.

C.

Implement an automated reconciliation process between ERP and IAM systems.

D.

Implement a periodic review of all ERP access within the IAM system.

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Question # 153

A financial organization is using an internally developed application. The internal software development team has to adhere to the coding standards of the Software Development Cycle (SDLC). For applications whose functionality is exposed through the public Internet, this requirement consists of testing the application for potential vulnerabilities before it is deployed into production. What is the BEST type of vulnerability test to perform?

A.

Web application unit test

B.

Online application development test

C.

Web application penetration test

D.

Online application assurance test

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Question # 154

A Structured Query Language (SQL) database is hosted on a hardened, secure server. All unused ports are locked down, but external connections from untrusted networks are still required to be allowed through. What is the BEST way to ensure transactions to/from this server remain secure?

A.

Secure SQL service port with a Transport Layer Security (TLS) certificate.

B.

Use Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) for all logins to the server.

C.

Secure SQL service port with a Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) certificate.

D.

Scan all connections to the server for malicious packets.

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Question # 155

A company decided not to pursue a business opportunity In a foreign market due to political Instability and currency fluctuations. Which risk control strategy did this business utilize?

A.

Mitigation

B.

Prevention

C.

Recovery

D.

Wait and see

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Question # 156

Typically, rough-cut capacity planning (RCCP) in a job shop environment would review which of the following work centers to determine the ability to execute the plan?

A.

Critical work centers only

B.

Gateway work centers only

C.

Final assembly work centers only

D.

All work centers

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Question # 157

An organization is preparing for a natural disaster, and management is creating a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP). What is the BEST input for prioritizing the restoration of vital Information Technology (IT) services?

A.

By priority as defined by the critical assets list

B.

The latest Continuity Of Operations Plan (COOP)

C.

Senior management assessment and approval

D.

The latest Business Impact Analysis (BIA)

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Question # 158

An organization is considering options to outsource their Information Technology (IT) operations. Although they do not sell anything on the Internet, they have a strong requirement in uptime of their application. After evaluating the offerings received by the Cloud Service Provider (CSP), the IT manager decided it was mandatory to develop processes to continue operations without access to community or public cloud-based applications. Which of the following arguments MOST likely led the IT manager to make this decision?

A.

Circumstances may force a cloud provider to discontinue operations

B.

Most cloud service offerings are unique to each provider and may not be easily portable

C.

Integrity and confidentiality are not ensured properly on most cloud service offerings

D.

The need to develop alternative hosting strategies for applications deployed to the cloud

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Question # 159

The Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) publishes the Egregious Eleven, a list of common threats to organizations using cloud services. According to the CSA Egregious Eleven, which of the following cases falls under the category of misconfiguration and inadequate change control?

A.

Having a public-facing website with Hypertext Markup Language (HTML) encoding enabled.

B.

Exposure of data stored in cloud repositories.

C.

Username and password are sent using a POST in plain text.

D.

Unsecured data storage elements or storage containers.

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Question # 160

As a result of a fault at a cloud service provider’s data center, the customer accounts of a utility organization were corrupted. Under the European Union’s (EU) General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), which entity bears responsibility for resolving this?

A.

Data steward

B.

Data processor

C.

Data controller

D.

Data custodian

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Question # 161

An infrastructure team is setting up a wireless network for employees at a new location of the organization that is located near a very busy city transport hub. Which should be the MOST important antenna consideration with regard to securing the wireless network for the infrastructure team?

A.

Network's Service Set Identifier (SSID) visibility and vulnerabilities are not cast out too far.

B.

Parabolic antenna is used for signal convergence.

C.

Network efficiently allows maximum channel separation.

D.

Implement Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) encryption.

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Question # 162

Which of the following BEST describes web service security conformance testing as it relates to web services security testing?

A.

Generally includes threat modeling, requirements risk analysis, and security modeling

B.

Focused on ensuring that the security functionally performed by a web service meets its stated requirements

C.

Ensure individual protocol implementations adhere to the relevant published standards

D.

Focused on the smallest unit of the web service application, apart from the rest of the application

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Question # 163

A security engineer is reviewing Incident Response (IR) roles and responsibilities. Several roles have static elevated privileges in case an incident occurs. Instead of static access, what is the BEST access method to manage elevated privileges?

A.

Just-in-time

B.

Delegated

C.

Break-glass

D.

Automated

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Question # 164

An organization has hired a new auditor to review its critical systems infrastructure for vulnerabilities. Which of the following BEST describes the methodology the auditor will use?

A.

Select an appropriate sample size of changes to production servers related to critical systems within the audit period and ensure they adhere to documented policies and standards.

B.

Select an appropriate sample size of recently deployed servers and review their configuration files against the organization's policies and standards.

C.

Select all production servers related to critical systems and review their configuration files against the organization's policies and standards.

D.

Select an appropriate sample size of changes to recently deployed servers within the audit period and ensure they adhere to documented policies and standards.

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Question # 165

An organization has received the results of their network security risk assessment. What is the BEST course of action for the organization to take in response to the analyzed report findings?

A.

Hire a security consulting firm with specialized expertise to fix all the issues on the report and ensure the organization’s system are secure.

B.

Work with the organization’s legal team to ensure their cyber liability insurance policy will fully cover the costs of any breach related to the network risk assessment findings.

C.

Create an organizational risk response team and assign them the task of remediating all the issues or identifying and implementing compensating controls.

D.

Accept the risk of the issues within the organization’s risk tolerance and identify responses for the remainder of the issues.

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